I am suppose to make use of the following lemma
If $a$, $b$ and $c$ are positive integers such that $(a, \, b) = 1$ and $a \mid bc$, then $a \mid c$
to prove that if $p$ is a prime number and $a$ is an integer, and if $p \mid a^2$ , then $p \mid a$.
I'm not sure how the lemma helps. I could write $a^2 = aa$ with $b=c=a$ in the lemma but we don't have $(a,b)=(p,a)=1$ so I don't see how it would help. I must use this lemma to prove it. I am aware that there are other methods.