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I am suppose to make use of the following lemma

If $a$, $b$ and $c$ are positive integers such that $(a, \, b) = 1$ and $a \mid bc$, then $a \mid c$

to prove that if $p$ is a prime number and $a$ is an integer, and if $p \mid a^2$ , then $p \mid a$.

I'm not sure how the lemma helps. I could write $a^2 = aa$ with $b=c=a$ in the lemma but we don't have $(a,b)=(p,a)=1$ so I don't see how it would help. I must use this lemma to prove it. I am aware that there are other methods.

MathMajor
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3 Answers3

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By contradiction: Given $p \mid a^2$, if $p\nmid a$ and since $p$ is prime then $(p,a)=1$ so using the mentioned result we get $p \mid a$ which is a contradiction.

Joffan
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Hint: Suppose $p$ does not divide $a$ then $(p,a) =1$ and now you may apply your lemma.

Aaron Maroja
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Assume that $p| a^2$ but $p\not| a$. Note that $(p,a)$ divides $p$, so $(p,a)=1$ or $p$. Also, $(p,a)$ divides $a$, and $p\not| a$, so $(p,a)=1$. Then apply your lemma.