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Given that the following series is convergent, determine the values of p.

$$\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{n(\log(n))^p}$$

So far what I have done is using the integral test, in order to use integral test, I set p $\in(0, \infty)$ to make f(x) decreasing.

Therefore I got:

$$\int_{2}^{\infty}f(x)dx=\dfrac{1}{(p-1)[\log(2)]^{1-p}}$$ which exist for $p\neq1$.

So my answer is $p\in(1,\infty)$, perhaps my question is stupid (sorry about that), but am I on the right track, didn't I make any mistakes?

thanks

MathMajor
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Alana
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1 Answers1

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The integral to be compared with is $$\int_2^{\infty}\dfrac{dx}{x\ln^p(x)} = \int_{\ln2}^{\infty} \dfrac{dt}{t^p} = \left. \dfrac{t^{1-p}}{1-p}\right \vert_{\ln2}^{\infty} = - \dfrac{(\ln2)^{1-p}}{1-p} + \lim_{t\to \infty} \dfrac{t^{1-p}}{1-p}$$ The limit exists only for $p>1$ and doesn't exist for $p \leq 1$. Hence, the series $$\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \dfrac1{n\ln^p(n)}$$ converges for $p>1$ and diverges for $p \leq 1$.

Adhvaitha
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