Given that the following series is convergent, determine the values of p.
$$\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{n(\log(n))^p}$$
So far what I have done is using the integral test, in order to use integral test, I set p $\in(0, \infty)$ to make f(x) decreasing.
Therefore I got:
$$\int_{2}^{\infty}f(x)dx=\dfrac{1}{(p-1)[\log(2)]^{1-p}}$$ which exist for $p\neq1$.
So my answer is $p\in(1,\infty)$, perhaps my question is stupid (sorry about that), but am I on the right track, didn't I make any mistakes?
thanks