In an optional course called "Finite Geometries", we most recently constructed the fields $$K_{p,n}[x] := \{\alpha \in K_p[x]\,| \deg(\alpha) < n\},$$ where $K = \mathbb{Z}$, $p$ is prime and $n \in \mathbb{N}$. To do this, we defined the addition as usual whereas for the multiplication we let $\varphi \in K_p[x]$ be an irreducible polynomial of $n$-th degree and then defined $$\alpha \odot \beta := \alpha \cdot \beta \text{ mod } \varphi.$$ Now, as it is not obvious that for every $n \in \mathbb{N}$ there exists such an irreducible polynomial, we proved this for $n \geq 2$ (for $n=1$ the field is simply $(K_p, +, \cdot)$) using a lot of yet unknown tools.
Let $F = \{\phi_1, \phi_2, ...\}$ be a countable set and for every $i \in \mathbb{N}$ let $m_i \in \mathbb{N}$ be the so called "index" of $\phi_i$. We write $m_i = \operatorname{ind}(\phi_i)$. For all $m \in \mathbb{N}$, let $|\{i: m_i = m\}| < \infty$. Then, we call $$\varphi(z) := \sum_{\phi_i \in F} z^{m_i}$$ the counting power-series (is this the correct english term?) of $F$. Obviously, the coefficient of $z^m$ in $\varphi(z)$ is just $|\{i: m_i = m\}|$. For two such sets $F_1 = \{\phi_1, ...\}$ and $F_2 = \{\psi_1, ...\}$ with indices $m_i$ and $n_j$ and counting power-series $\varphi_1(z)$ and $\varphi_2(z)$, we find that the counting power-series for $F_1 \times F_2$ is simply $\varphi_1(z) \cdot \varphi_2(z)$ if we let the index of $(\phi_i, \psi_j)$ be $m_i + n_j$.
Now let $F^{(n)}$ be the set of normed irreducible polynomials of $n$-the degree in $K_p[x]$ and let $f_n = |F^{(n)}|$. We write $F^{(n)} = \{\phi_1^{(n)}, ..., \phi_{f_n}^{(n)}\}$ and for $\phi_j^{(n)} \in F^{(n)}$ let $$F_j^{(n)} = \{1, \phi_j^{(n)}, \phi_j^{(n)} \cdot \phi_j^{(n)}, ...\}.$$ Also, let $\operatorname{ind}(\phi_j^{(n)}) = n$. Then, the counting power-series of $F_j^{(n)}$ is $$\varphi_j^{(n)} = 1 + z^n + z^{2n} + ... = \frac{1}{1-z^n}.$$
Question 1: Why is $\operatorname{ind}(\phi_j^{(n)} \cdot \phi_j^{(n)}) = 2n$? We have only defined the index for $\phi_j^{(n)}$ and we have not defined that index-function to have any special properties, so how can one obtain indices for all the other elements of this set?
Next we define $$F := \{\phi \in F_1^{(1)} \times ... \times F_{f_1}^{(1)} \times F_1^{(2)} \times ... |\; \text{only finitely many factors of } \phi \text{ are} \neq 1\}.$$
This set is bijective to the set of all normed polynomials in $K_p[x]$.
Question 2: What does it mean if only finitely many factors are $\neq 1$ and how is this set bijective to the set of all normed polynomials in $K_p[x]$?
The counting power-series of $F$ is the product of the counting power-series of its factors, i.e. $$\varphi(z) = \prod_{n=1}^\infty \left( \frac{1}{1-z^n} \right)^{f_n}.$$ In $K_p[x]$ there are $p^n$ normed polynomials of $n$-th degree, and thus we can also write $$\varphi(z) = 1 + pz + p^2z^2 + ... = \frac{1}{1-pz}.$$
Question 3: What does this summation have to do with $F$ and its power-series?
After this, the writer logarithmically derives both expressions for $\varphi(z)$ and after a few transformations, he arrives at $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \left( \sum_{d \mid n} d f_d\right) z^{n-1} = \sum_{n=1}^\infty p^n z^{n-1}$$ which can be solved using Möbius-inversion. Then, we eventually have $$n f_n = p^n + ... + \mu(n) p = p^m ( p^{n-m} + ... \pm 1),$$ where both factors cannot be $0$ and thus for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$ we have $f_n \neq 0$.
Question 4: I don't understand this last step. What is $m$? Why is the bracket $\neq 0$?
Thanks you in advance for helping me understand this proof.