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This question came to me when I tried comparing direct product and quotients of groups with products and quotients of natural numbers. When we divide a number by another and multiply the result with the divisor we get back the original number. That is, if $b|a$ $$\frac{a}{b} \cdot b = a$$ However this is not true in case of groups. For example $$\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} \times n\mathbb{Z} \not\cong \mathbb{Z}$$ I don't know how to make my question precise but is there a product-quotient operator pair that mimics the above mentioned property of product-quotient on numbers?

Seven
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I don't know if this is the answer you are looking for, but your question is not really precise (as you say) so I would try this.

Well let's say I have the set of groups $\mathcal{G}$ (assume It can be indeed defined). On this set, there is the relation of isomorphism. Let's call $G$ the quotient :

$$G:=\mathcal{G}/\text{ isomorphism}$$

Define $(G,\times)$ where $\times$ denotes the direct product of groups. I claim (straightforward verification) that $\times$ is an internal law for $G$ (in particular it is well defined), is commutative ($A\times B$ is isomorphic to $B\times A$), associative and has a neutral element (the trivial group $\mathbb{1}$).

This commutative monoid with a unit $(G,\times)$ is not a group. You can check that :

$$\frac{\mathbb{Z}}{2\mathbb{Z}}^{\mathbb{N}}\times\mathbb{1}\text{ is isomorphic to }\frac{\mathbb{Z}}{2\mathbb{Z}}^{\mathbb{N}}\times \frac{\mathbb{Z}}{2\mathbb{Z}} $$

If $\frac{\mathbb{Z}}{2\mathbb{Z}}^{\mathbb{N}}$ had an inverse then :

$$\mathbb{1}\text{ would be isomorphic to }\frac{\mathbb{Z}}{2\mathbb{Z}}$$

Now what can we do about this ? Well check this : http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grothendieck_group. The Grothendieck group construction allows you to make a group out of a commutative monoid with a unit (even if the monoid in question has no such thing as a cancellation property).

Well I claim now that the Grothendieck group associated to $G$ is the trivial group. To show this : this relies on the fact that for any group $H_1,H_2$ we have that :

$$(H_1^{\mathbb{N}}\times H_2^{\mathbb{N}})\times H_1\text{ is isomorphic to }(H_1^{\mathbb{N}}\times H_2^{\mathbb{N}})\times H_2 $$

A first statement as an answer to your question is : you cannot have this (in a natural way) because the most natural "groupification" is trivial (see the wikipedia page to see what this associated group must verify).

However If we take $G$ to be the finite groups (or finitely generated groups) up to isomorphism. I am not so sure of what happens, you still have $(G,\times)$ is a commutative monoide with a unit. So the Grothendieck group associated to this still makes sens and obviously the argument I have given cannot work when we restrict to finite groups (nor for finitely generated groups).

Edit : If $G$ is the set of finite groups up to isomorphism then $A\times B$ is isomorphic to $A\times C$ implies $B$ isomorphic to $C$, see this :

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Krull%E2%80%93Schmidt_theorem

In this case our monoid $(G,\times)$ satisfies the cancellation property and the Grothendieck group $\mathcal{G}(G)$ associated contains $(G,\times)$ as a submonoid. The group is infinitely generated by all the classes of undecomposable finite groups. Given a bijection between classes of undecomposable finite groups and $\mathbb{N}$ we see that :

$$\mathcal{G}(G)\text{ is isomorphic to } \mathbb{Z}^{(\mathbb{N})} $$

And with this isomorphism :

$$G\text{ is given by } \mathbb{N}^{(\mathbb{N})} $$

For the case where $G$ is the set of finitely generated groups up to isomorphism it is not so clear what happens.

  • Thanks for a wonderful answer! I followed everything more or less, though I am still figuring out why the associated group must be trivial. – Seven Apr 29 '15 at 12:48
  • Also, what do these new objects in the associated group represent (in the finite case)? Are they just formal objects introduced to complete the group or can they be understood in terms of something familiar? – Seven Apr 29 '15 at 13:01
  • @Seven, In the finite group case, the Grothendieck group statement is just a complicated way of saying that there is a unique way to decompose a finite group as a product of undecomposable group. Hence without a classification of undecomposable group (and it's not likely to be done) this is just formal, I am afraid. – Clément Guérin Apr 29 '15 at 13:09
  • If G(M) is the Grothendieck group associated to $(M,.)$ then $G(M)=(M\times M)/R$ where $R$ is a relation defined by $(m_1,m_2)R(m_3,m_4)$ iff we can find $m\in M$ such that $m.(m_1.m_4)=m.(m_2.m_3)$. Now if you take $M:=G$, $H_1:=m_1.m_3$ and $H_2:=(m_2.m_3)$ in my answer and $m=H_1^{\mathbb{N}}\times H_2^{\mathbb{N}}$ you see any two couples $(m_1,m_2)$ and $(m_3,m_4)$ in $G\times G$ are equivalent so $(G\times G)/R$ has only one element. – Clément Guérin Apr 29 '15 at 13:14