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I am working on something and read that measure of graph of a continuous function on compact sets is zero. Now, I tried to do it for non continuous functions but the set of discontinuities have measure zero. I took $\sin{\frac{1}{x}}$ for $x\neq 0$ and $0$ when $x=0$, My intuition is that it shouldn't be of measure zero since it oscillates very rapidly close to zero. Is it true? How can i prove it?

P.S Please suggest me a reference which deals with measures of graphs.

KittyL
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Ali
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2 Answers2

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It cannot have a measure greater than zero.

Proof: Be $\epsilon>0$ arbitrary. Then the measure of the graph clearly is the sum of the measure of the graph on $[0,\epsilon/2]$ and the measure on the graph on $[\epsilon/2,1]$.

Now on $[\epsilon/2,1]$ the function is continuous, therefore the measure is zero. On the other hand, on $[0,\epsilon/2]$, the graph is a subset of the rectangle $[0,\epsilon/2]\times [-1,1]$, which has measure $\epsilon$. Therefore the measure of that part of the graph is $\le\epsilon$.

Therefore the measure of the graph of $\sin\frac1x$ on $[0,1]$ is $\le\epsilon$ for any $\epsilon>0$. Thus the measure must be $0$

celtschk
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  • So the proof suggests that measure of graph of any continuous function will be zero if the domain is bounded right? It doesn't need to be compact or did it missed something? – Ali Apr 19 '15 at 08:59
  • @Ali: Well, the proof uses that the sine is bounded, so you can only use it on bounded functions. For unbounded functions (like $1/x$) you'll need other arguments. I think the best way to prove it for the general bounded domain would be to decompose the open interval into countably many closed intervals and use the $\sigma$-additivity of the Lebesgue measure. – celtschk Apr 19 '15 at 09:04
  • @Ali: Actually, the bounded domain cannot be absolutely general; if the domain is a non-measurable set, I'm sure the graph on that domain will also be unmeasurable; however if it is unmeasurable, it certainly will not have a measure greater than zero either. – celtschk Apr 19 '15 at 09:11
  • so, even for $1/x$ the graph has measure zero? When do they have positive measures? – Ali Apr 19 '15 at 09:23
  • Never. See joois answer for a more general proof. – celtschk Apr 19 '15 at 09:42
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For non-negative measurable functions $f: \Bbb{R}^n \to [0, \infty]$ the Lebesgue measure of the set $$ \mathcal{G}(f) = \{ (x,y) \in \Bbb{R}^n \times [0, \infty) \mid 0 \leq y < f(x)\} \subset \Bbb{R}^{n+1} $$ is the integral of $f$, so \begin{equation} (*) \quad \int_{\Bbb{R}^n} f \, dm = m_{n+1}(\mathcal{G}(f))\,. \end{equation} It turns out that if we define a set $$ \tilde{\mathcal{G}}(f) = \{ (x,y) \in \Bbb{R}^n \times [0, \infty) \mid 0 \leq y \leq f(x)\} \subset \Bbb{R}^{n+1}\,, $$ then $m_{n+1} (\tilde{\mathcal{G}}(f)) = m_{n+1} (\mathcal{G}(f))$. From this it follows that the set (graph of $f$) $$ A = \{ (x,f(x)) \in \Bbb{R}^n \times [0, \infty) \mid x \in \Bbb{R}^n \} ) $$ has Lebesgue measure zero. I think this can be generalized to graphs of arbitrary measurable functions.

Proof of $(*)$. First, from the definition of integral \begin{align} \int f &= \sup_\varphi \{ \int \varphi \mid \varphi \leq f\}\,, \end{align} where the supremum is taken over all simple functions for which $\varphi \leq f$. Then it's easy to show that \begin{align} \sup_\varphi \{ \int \varphi \mid \varphi \leq f\} &= \sup_{\varphi \leq f} m_{n+1}(\mathcal{G}(\varphi))\,. \end{align} Now let $(\varphi_k)$ be a increasing sequence of simple functions s.t. $\varphi_k \to f$. Then $\mathcal{G}(\varphi_k) \subset \mathcal{G}(\varphi_{k+1})$, and $$ \mathcal{G}(f) = \bigcup_{k \in \Bbb{N}} \mathcal{G}(\varphi_k)\,. $$ The set $\mathcal{G}(f)$ is measurable because the sets $\mathcal{G}(\varphi_k)$ are measurable. And from the continuity of $m_{n+1}$ we have $$ m_{n+1}(\mathcal{G}(f)) = \lim_{k \to \infty} m_{n+1}(\mathcal{G}(\varphi_k))\,. $$ Because for every simple function s.t. $\varphi \leq f$ we have $\mathcal{G}(\varphi) \subset \bigcup \mathcal{G}(\varphi_k)$, it follows that \begin{align} m_{n+1}(\mathcal{G}(\varphi)) & \leq m_{n+1} \left( \bigcup_{k \in \Bbb{N}} \mathcal{G}(\varphi_k) \right) = \lim_{k \to \infty} m_{n+1}(\mathcal{G}(\varphi_k))\,. \end{align} Also $$ \sup_{\varphi \leq f} m_{n+1}(\mathcal{G}(\varphi)) \geq \lim_{k \to \infty} m_{n+1} (\mathcal{G}(\varphi_k))\,, $$ so we have established that $$ \sup_{\varphi \leq f} m_{n+1}(\mathcal{G}(\varphi)) = \lim_{k \to \infty} (\mathcal{G}(\varphi_k)) = m_{n+1}(\mathcal{G}(f))\,, $$ so $\int f = m_{n+1}(\mathcal{G}(f))$.

To prove that $m_{n+1}(\mathcal{G}) = m_{n+1}(\tilde{\mathcal{G}})$ take $c > 1$ and then it follows that $$ m_{n+1}(\tilde{\mathcal{G}}(f)) \leq m_{n+1} ( \mathcal{G}(cf)) = c m(\mathcal{G}(f))\,, $$ and the claim follows by taking $c \to 1$.

desos
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  • It was an error. I think it's corrected now. – desos Apr 19 '15 at 09:27
  • Indeed, it is. +1 – celtschk Apr 19 '15 at 09:29
  • BTW, I think generalization to non-positive functions could be done by simply splitting the domain into the parts where $f>0$ and $f<0$ (parts where $f=0$ obviously don't contribute, since they are subset of the $x$ axis which is of measure zero). Obviously $f$ and $-f$ have the same measure. – celtschk Apr 19 '15 at 09:33
  • Yeah, that will probably work. – desos Apr 19 '15 at 09:38