I'm trying to prove that given a sequence $a_{n}$ such as $\displaystyle\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}n(a_{n+1}-a_{n})=1,$ then $a_{n}$ diverges to $\infty.$
I'm lost searching a path to prove it. I believe the fact of $n(a_{n+1}-a_{n})$ is bound, because of the convergence, guides me to conclude that $(a_{n+1}-a_{n})$ converges to zero. In this point I'm searching the "connection" between de convergence of $(a_{n+1}-a_{n})$ and the way to find an "epsilon" such as $|a_{n}|>\epsilon.$
Any idea to solve this it will be very thankful.