This question has been answered in the past but I am confused about a point in the proof.
Here is the problem statement:
Let $f$ be a continuous function from $[0, \infty)$ to $\mathbb{R}$ such that $$\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x) = 0$$. Prove that $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0, \infty)$.
Proof:
Since $$\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x) = 0$$ given $\epsilon >0$ there exists an $N>0$ such that for all $x,y > N$, $|f(x)-f(y)| < \epsilon$.
Now, since $[0,N]$ is a compact set, and $f$ is continuous, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,N]$. That is, given the same $\epsilon >0$, there exists a $\delta > 0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)| < \epsilon$ for all $x,y \in [0,N]$ with $|x-y| < \delta$.
Now we just need to show that $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(N,\infty)$.
My question is, can't we just say that for all $x,y > N$ with $|x-y| < \delta$, $|f(x) - f(y)| < \epsilon$ and hence, we have $f$ is uniformly continuous on all of $[0, \infty)$?
A previous prove says to let $\delta_j = min\{1,\delta\}$ before proving uniform continuity of $f$ on $(N, \infty)$ and I don't see the need for this step.