We are given that $\Omega$ is a parallelogram in $\mathbb{R}^3$ and $\left\{ T(\vec{x}) = A\vec{x} \mid \mathbb{R}^3 \mapsto \mathbb{R}^3\right\}$ is a linear transformation.
From the definition of the expansion factor of $T$, which is $\frac{\text{area of } T(\Omega)}{\text{area of }\Omega}=|\det A\,|\,,$ I'm tempted to say yes, but how would I conclusively prove that no counterexamples exist?
For example, there should be a linear transformation $\left\{T(\vec{x})=A\vec{x}\mid\mathbb{R}^3\mapsto\mathbb{R}^3\right\}$ such that $\frac{\text{area of }T(\Omega)}{\text{area of }\Omega}\neq\frac{|\det A|\det B|}{|\det B|}\,,$ but I'm told that "the linear transformation $T(\vec{x})=A\vec{x}$ expands the area of all parallelograms by the same factor, namely, $|\det A|\,.$ Surely there must be an exception?
EDIT: $\newcommand{\Reals}{\mathbf{R}}\newcommand{\Basis}{\mathbf{e}}$ Best (and simplest) contradiction I have found thus far:
Let $T(\vec{x})=A\vec{x}=2I_3(\vec{x})$, i.e. $A$, the matrix corresponding to $T$, is $\,\begin{pmatrix}2&0&0\\0&2&0\\0&0&2\end{pmatrix}\Rightarrow|\det(A)|=8$
However, if $\Omega$ is the square defined by $\vec{\Basis_{1}}, \vec{\Basis_{2}}$, then $T(\Omega)$ is the square defined by $2\vec{\Basis_{1}}, 2\vec{\Basis_{2}}$, such that the area of $T(\Omega)$ must be 4.
Does anyone have any thoughts on what the general form of this proof might look like?