Please apologize the question, I struggled with finding a good formulation in the first place:
Looking at $\binom{2n}{k}$ it is very clear that for n,k integer and n>k we can solve it by calculating:
$$(2n)!\over k!(2n-k)!$$
$2n!$ is clearly not the same as $(2n)!$ as for $n=3$ we easily see $2\times3\times2\times1 \neq 6\times5\times4\times3\times2\times1$
Which mathematical rule is responsible for this? I mean it is clearly just a substitution, but still I struggle in finding any ruling for this differentiation - probably because it is as basic.