Sums like this can get really convoluted, but this one is fairly approachable step-by-step. My general advice when tackling these would be to think with polynomials, rather than combinatorically. I am sure there is some funky "out of $n$ balls paint $k$ red and $l$ black" argument, but it's hard to come up with a rule which works every time, and most of the time it's only in hindsight that you realize what was being counted.
Let's take a look at this one step at a time. First thing about binomial coefficients is that they neatly enforce inequalities about the numbers involved above and below. So in this case, the fact that we multiply the summation term by ${n-k} \choose {l}$ guarantees that $l \leq n-k$, because for all other number choices that binomial coefficient is zero. So the added $[k+l \leq n]$ constraint does nothing, and can be omitted.
Second step is to try to reason using one parameter/axis at a time. Can we do something only using the terms involving $i, j, k$ or $l$? In this case, $l$ looks the most promising, because it is in only a single binomial coefficient and it is not being raised to any powers (you can develop intuition about this by doing many sums, but in any case you can try all 4 parameters and should quickly get stuck in the other 3).
We can break the inner double sum into the $l$ parts and the non-$l$ parts, which we can bring outside the $l$-sum:
$\sum\limits_{k=0}^n {n \choose k} \sum\limits_{l=0}^{n-k} {{n-k} \choose l} (j-i-1)^{n-k-l}$
Now this inner sum over $l$ is basically of the shape $\sum_l {{u \choose l} t^{u-l}}$ for the right choice of $u$ and $t$, and is by definition $(t+1)^u$. Again, general advice is to look for binomial coefficients which complement the exponent of the summation term.
So we managed to remove the $l$ completely, and now our inner sum becomes $\sum\limits_{k=0}^n {n \choose k} (j-i)^{n-k}$, which is again of the same binomial expansion shape, and so can be further simplified to $(j-i+1)^n$.
So now our entire sum is $\sum\limits_{1\leq i < j \leq m} (j-i+1)^n$, which is already pretty simple, but we can take it a little bit further:
Out of all those $(i,j)$ pairs, $(1,2), (2,3) ... (m-1, m)$ have a difference $1$. That's $m-1$ of them. $(1, 3), (2, 4) .. (m-2,m)$ have difference 2, and there's $m-2$ of them, etc, all the way to the single $(1,m)$ which has a difference $j-i=m-1$.
So our double sum is in fact a single sum over the difference, let's say $j-i=d$, and it is $\sum\limits_{d=1}^{m-1} (m-d) (d+1)^n$, which can be broken into two pieces $(m+1)\sum (d+1)^n - \sum (d+1)^{n+1}$. I suspect this is as simple as it is going to get, the formulae for sums of powers are kinda messy, but there might be some further trick I've overlooked.
Anyway, good luck with the exam; as I said before, try to do things one step at a time, monster sums often fall apart from the inside. :)