Let $f(x)$ be a polynomial of $n^{th}$ degree with integer coefficients and let the leading coefficient be 1. Is it true that $f(x) = k^n$ for infinitely many integers $k$ and $x$ if and only if all roots of $f(x)$ are equal?
One side of the proof is fairly simple. If all roots of $f(x)$ are equal, then $f(x) = (x-x_1)^n$, where $x_1$ is the root of $f(x)$
Now I have problems with the other side. I don't know how to start. I started looking at special cases and I proved it for $n=2$. Let $f(x) = x^2 + ax + b$. Then the roots are $x_1 = \frac{-a + \sqrt{D}}{2}$ and $x_2 = \frac{ -a - \sqrt{D}}{2}$
Then $f(x) = (x-x_1)(x-x_2)$. Now set $f(x)$ to $k^2$ and we have:
$$(2x + a + \sqrt{D})(2x + a - \sqrt{D}) = (2k)^2$$ $$(2x + a)^2 - D = (2k)^2$$
Since $D$ is some fixed number for some large enough $x$ we will have:
$$(2x+a - 1)^2 < (2x+a)^2 - D < (2x+a+1)^2$$
Hence $(2x+a)^2 - D = (2x +a)^2 \implies D=0 \implies x_1 = x_2$
But i'm stuck for $n=3$ and more generally you can't use this method when the degree of $f(x)$ is bigger than 4, since there's no explicit formula for the roots of $f(x)$
Let $k$ be a product of $n$ numbers: $k = p_1p_2...p_n$. Then for arbitrary $x$ build $x_i = x - p^n_i$. Then $f(x) = (x - x_1)...(x - x_n) = k^n$
But I think you are asking if roots are fixed and equality is hold for infinitely many $x$ and $k$.
– hOff Mar 12 '15 at 21:43