This may be more appropriate for MO but I thought I'd ask here first as it's just a question about logic (not my strong point at all but not research-level in itself). I'm going through Razborov's flag algebra paper (properly this time) and I'm struggling with what an open interpretation of logical theories actually is. It's defined on p.14 as follows:
Let $T_1$ and $T_2$ be two universal first order theories in respective languages $L_1$, $L_2$ which do not contain function symbols (they can contain predicate symbols and constants). Let $U(x)$ be an open formula in $L_2$ such that $T_2 \vdash U(c)$ for every constant $c\in L_2$. Let $I$ be a translation which sends each predicate symbol $P(x_1, \dots, x_r)\in L_1$ to an open formula $I(P)(x_1, \dots, x_r)\in L_2$ and each constant $c\in L_1$ to a constant $I(c) \in L_2$. Extend $I$ to open formulas in $L_1$ by declaring it commutes with logical connectives. The pair $(U, I)$ is called an open interpretation of $T_1$ in $T_2$ if for every axiom $\forall x_1, \dots, x_r A(x_1, \dots, x_r) $ of $T_1$, we have $$T_2 \vdash \forall x_1, \dots, x_r \left[\left(U(x_1)\wedge \dots \wedge U(x_r) \right)\implies I(A) (x_1, \dots, x_r) \right]$$
So the interpretation of every axiom (in this case some formula consisting of relations and constants) of $T_1$ is an open formula in $T_2$ and it is provable in $T_2$ that $U(x_1)\wedge \dots \wedge U(x_r)$ implies $I(A)(x_1, \dots, x_r)$ for any $x_1, \dots, x_r$.
I cannot get my head around this, although I follow the logical terminology. How do people think of such interpretations? Can I roughly think of this as "$U$ implies the interpretations of the axioms of $T_1$, giving an "interpreted" copy of $T_1$ living inside $T_2$"?