I'm reading about symmetric polynomials at the moment, and came upon this statement:
Let $G(x_1, \ldots, x_n)$ be a symmetric polynomial. Separate out $x_n$, representing $G$ as follows: $G_\nu x_n^\nu + \cdots+ G_1 x_n + G_0$, where the $G_i$ are polynomials in $x_1, \ldots, x_{n-1}$.
So far I understand why this is possible and what this means. But now the author claims that because $G$ is symmetric, so is each $G_i$. I don't see that. And in thinking about it, I realized that I don't really know what a symmetric polynomial is. I get that it's a polynomial in which after permuting the variables, you get "the same" polynomial, but what does "the same" mean? I can see at least two interpretations of "the same" for multivariable polynomials:
- The two polynomials represent the same function.
- One polynomial can be turned into the other using high-school algebra.
Of these two, the first seems more natural to me, because I've always thought of (2) as being justified because it implies (1). So (2) seems like a more round-about way of saying (1), and in fact (2) might even be strictly weaker than (1) - distributivity and so on just happen to be the rules taught to us in middle school, but who's to say there aren't polynomials equal for all values of their inputs that can't be transformed into one another by those manipulations?
Thus, what exactly is the author claiming here and how do you prove it?