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Suppose $\hat{I}$ is a Hilbert cube and $I$ is a line segment. Consider Lebesgue measures $m_1$ and $m_2$ on $\hat{I}$ and $I$ correspondingly. Let $f:\hat{I}\to I$ be a continuous surjection.

  1. Is it true that if $m_1(K) = 1$ for a Borel set $K$ then $m_2(f(K) ) = 1$ ?
  2. If the answer to the first question is no, would it help if I assume in addition that $f$ is Hölder continuous (with respect to metrics that are compatible with Borel structures)?

This is a continuation of this question.

P.S. This is the third question in the series, I promise this one is the last.

demitau
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  • What exactly do you mean by "Lebesgue measure" on the Hilbert cube? – PhoemueX Mar 06 '15 at 18:20
  • Just the product of the Lebesgue measures on the segments which are taken to get the product. Or its homeomorphis image like here: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/75932/measure-on-hilbert-space/269369#269369 – demitau Mar 06 '15 at 18:40
  • Ok. I will have to think about that. For part 2: I don't think that assuming Hölder continuity will help. Because if $f$ is continuous, we can just take the new metric $d'(x,y) := d_A(x,y) + d_B (f(x), f(y))$ on $A$ and $f$ will even be Lipschitz with respect to this metric. – PhoemueX Mar 06 '15 at 19:03

1 Answers1

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I got an answer from MathOverflow. A counterexample can be constructed using The Devil's staircase. If one replaces $\hat{I}$ by $I$, than the Cantor function is Holder continuous surjection and it is easy to construct a full measure set K (the set where the function is locally constant = the union of middle third intervals = the set of numbers whose base 3 expansion contains at least one 1) that is mapped to a zero measure set (the set of numbers with base 2 expansion having only finite nonzero coordinates).

To understand that $K$ has measure $1$ look at $I\setminus K$. It is a set of numbers without a single $1$ in base-3 expansion. I will show that this set has measure zero due to standard ergodic theory. Base $3$ expansion of a number $y$ can be contructed by assigning a sequence of digits $\{\sigma_k\}$ from $\{0,1,2\}^\mathbb{N}$ to the trajectory of $y$ under the action of $E_3 (x) = 3x (\mod 1)$. If $E_3^{k} (x) < 1/3$, put $\sigma_k = 0$, if $1/3 < E_3^{k} (x) < 2/3$, put $\sigma_k = 1$, and so on.

As $E_k$ is ergodic with respect to Lebesgue measure for every $k\geq 2$, for Lebesgue almost every $x$ the trajectory of $x$ under the action of $x \to 3x (\mod 1)$ visits every open set (including middle third).

To understand that $f(K)$ has zero measure one can use a similar argument -- for Lebesgue almost every $x$ the trajectory of $x$ under the action of $x \to 2x (\mod 1)$ visits every open set (including second half) infinitely many times.

To handle the case of Hilbert cube one can take a composition of the Cantor function and a projection.

In fact, there are other similar examples here

demitau
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  • Can you at least link to the Math Overflow post? Adding an outline of the construction would be even better than a pure link. – Daniel Fischer Mar 10 '15 at 09:36