I think I'm misuderstanding something here, because to my understanding the definition of infinitesimal given in my textbook does not convey the same thing as in other sources.
I've read the definitions of infinitesimal given in Wikipedia and WolframMathWorld, and also related posts about the topic (like this and this) and all agree in that an infinitesimal is a quantity less than any finite quantity yet not zero (It must be in that way I guess). But what I'm not getting is the definition of infinitesimal given in my textbook:
The function $y = f(x)$ is called infinitesimal as $x \to a$ or $x \to \infty$, if $$\lim\limits_{x \to a}f(x) = 0\qquad \text{or}\qquad \lim\limits_{x \to \infty} f(x) = 0$$
How should I understand this?
Is an infinitesimal no longer thought as in the Leibnizian viewpoint but a zero limit of a function?
If I'm talking about infinitesimals, do I have to make clear whether I'm referring to a infinitely small quantity or to a limit zero of, say, a function? Are they the same thing? I though they don't.
From that definition:
$$\lim_{\Delta x \to 0}[f(x+\Delta x) - f(x)]$$
is and infinitesimal, and so
$$\lim_{\Delta x \to 0}\Delta x$$
Then for $\frac{\mathrm{d}y}{\mathrm{d}x}$ I have a quotient of infinitesimals.
Is the definition wrong or I'm missing something?
I've been looking for other definitions of infinitesimal relating it to the notion of limit, but haven't found one yet.
Thanks !!