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Hello I was reviewing some concepts of differential forms. I cannot recall why only multilinear alternating forms can be integrated on manyfolds and not general multilinear forms... Why is the hypothesis of being alternating so important? In an intuitive way I'd like to understand it... Is it for having a covariant concept? Or for making some riemann sums convergent?

roi_saumon
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Thomas
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    Indeed any k-form could be integrated, however there is no theory for it. The idea is that the forms of maximum degree in a manifold can be understood as a local way to represent an integral in an Euclidean space, however to develop a theory to integrate any form we don't have a reason to do it. By example: I can define the integration of any k-form if I associates it to a volume form. – Masacroso Jan 13 '21 at 02:35
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    I attempted to explain the intuition behind integration on manifolds, and why a differential form is intuitively the right type of thing to integrate over a manifold, here: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3062951/40119 – littleO Jan 13 '21 at 09:59
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    It all starts with computing the area of a parallelogram spanned by two vectors $\vec{v}$ and $\vec{w}$, $A(\vec{v},\vec{w}) = |\vec{v}||\vec{w}||\sin\theta|$, where $\theta$ is the angle between the two vectors. The problem with this formula is that it has absolute values, so it is hard to work with. The insight is that if you remove the absolute value around the $\sin\theta$, then $A$ becomes a really nice function of $\vec{v}$ and $\vec{w}$. In particular, it is multilinear. The price paid is that $A$ can now be negative. But it's worth it. – Deane Jan 17 '21 at 19:30
  • Next, on an abstract $2$-dimensional vector space (without an inner product), there is no natural definition of area. But, now that you know that the oriented area should be a skew-symmetric multilinear function, you can use any skew-symmetric $2$-tensor to define an area function for parallelograms, which does not depend on any basis. Finally, using the usual Riemann sum argument, this allows you to define a type of integral that does not depend on the coordinates used. That's where differential $2$-forms come from. – Deane Jan 17 '21 at 19:34
  • Wow @roi_sauman, you’re really a necromancer of the highest order :-D I’m glad to see good answers explaining some aspects in more details though. – bodo Jan 20 '21 at 14:19

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$\def\d{\mathrm{d}} \def\np{\star} \newcommand\pder[2][]{\frac{\partial #1}{\partial #2}}$Here we motivate this fact with a small example.

Suppose we wish to integrate something of the form $\d x^1\np \d x^2$, where $\np$ is some, not necessarily alternating, product. (The superscripts here are simply labels.) We assume that the product is distributive and acts nicely with respect to scalar multiplication. Under coordinate transformation we find \begin{align*} \d x^1\np \d x^2 &= \left(\pder[x^1]{y^1}\d y^1+\pder[x^1]{y^2}\d y^2\right) \np \left(\pder[x^2]{y^1}\d y^1+\pder[x^2]{y^2}\d y^2\right) \\ &=\pder[x^1]{y^1}\pder[x^2]{y^1}\d y^1\np\d y^1 + \pder[x^1]{y^1}\pder[x^2]{y^2}\d y^1\np\d y^2 \\ & \quad + \pder[x^1]{y^2}\pder[x^2]{y^1}\d y^2\np\d y^1 + \pder[x^1]{y^2}\pder[x^2]{y^2}\d y^2\np\d y^2. \end{align*} To agree with our standard notion of integration, we must have $$\d x^1\star\d x^2 = \det\pder[x^i]{y^j} \d y^1\np \d y^2.$$ We immediately find \begin{align*} \d y^1\np\d y^1 &= \d y^2\np\d y^2 = 0 \\ \d y^2\np\d y^1 &= -\d y^1\np\d y^2, \end{align*} that is, the product $\np$ is antisymmetric.

user26872
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    As a geometer myself, I never had this clear vision of alternating forms. Thank you. – Didier Jan 17 '21 at 18:45
  • @DIdier_: I am glad that you found the answer useful. This is roughly how the subject was motivated for me when I first learned of it. – user26872 Jan 17 '21 at 20:58
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Let $\alpha$ be a covariant $k$ -tensor on a finite-dimensional $n$ vector space $V .$ The following are equivalent:

  1. $\alpha$ is alternating.
  2. $\alpha\left(v_{1}, \ldots, v_{k}\right)=0$ whenever the $k$ -tuple $\left(v_{1}, \ldots, v_{k}\right)$ is linearly dependent.
  3. $\alpha$ gives the value zero whenever two of its arguments are equal: $$ \alpha\left(v_{1}, \ldots, w, \ldots, w, \ldots, v_{k}\right)=0 $$

The determinant can be defined as an $n$ alternating form such that $\det(I_n)=1$. This hints that alternating forms behave well with volume. As you want lower dimensional subspace to have zero volume in space.

For a $C^{\infty}$ function $f(x)$ on $\mathbb{R}^n$ with compact support, its Riemann integral \begin{equation}\label{eq:Riemann_integral} \int_{\mathbb{R}^{n}} f(x) d x_{1} \cdots d x_{n}=\lim _{\left|\sigma_{j}\right| \rightarrow 0} \sum_{j} f\left(x_{j}\right)\left|\sigma_{j}\right| \end{equation} is defined. Here the $\sigma_{j}$ are $n$ -dimensional small cubes which altogether cover supp $f$, $x_{j}$ is a point on $\sigma_{j},$ and $\left|\sigma_{j}\right|$ is the volume of $\sigma_{j}$. we have that translating $\sigma_i$ to the origin gives $|\sigma_i|=|\det \sigma_i|$. However, if we change the viewpoint slightly and integration of $n$-forms (putting in the symbols $\wedge$ also), and set $$ \omega=f(x) d x_{1} \wedge \cdots \wedge d x_{n} $$ Then this is nothing but an $n$ -form on $\mathbb{R}^{n}$. We may consider that the integral $\int_{\mathbf{R}^{n}} \omega$ of $\omega$ on $\mathbb{R}^{n}$ is defined by the riemann integral However, two problems arise. One is that if we change the order of $d x_{1}$ and $d x_{2},$ for example, in the formula of $\omega,$ the sign changes, while in the formula for the riemann integral the integral value does not change. This is where the covariant concept comes to play.

In another set of coordinates we have $$\omega=f(x(y)) \operatorname{det}\left(\frac{\partial x_{i}}{\partial y_{j}}\right) d y_{1} \wedge \cdots \wedge d y_{n}$$ By the formula of variable change, we have $$ \int_{\mathbf{R}^{n}} f(x) d x_{1} \cdots d x_{n}=\int_{\mathbf{R}^{n}} f(x(y))\left|\operatorname{det}\left(\frac{\partial x_{i}}{\partial y_{j}}\right)\right| d y_{1} \cdots d y_{n} $$ This means that if we take coordinates $y_1, \dots y_n$ that have the same orientation the integral will have the same value. The change in order of $dx_1$ and $dx_2$ was given by $(x_1,x_2,x_3 \dots,x_n) \mapsto (x_2,x_1,x_3\dots,x_n)$ an orientation reversing diffeomorphism thus we solved the problem of sign ambiguity of the riemann integral once we choose an orientation.

Bodo has a nice answer and this answer tries to focus on the isomorphism to the density bundle he wrote about and connect it to the concepts you talked about. An added bonus of this discussion is that you may understand why alternating forms of lower degrees are also interesting as you can integrate them on cycles the content of the celebrated de rham theorem De Rham's theorem.

Elad
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When defining an integral over manifolds, you want it to resemble integration in local coordinates. Apart from the possibility of a vector valued integral (which I have not seen yet), this means you can only integrate sections of some line bundle $L$ (i.e. a vector bundle of rank 1).

So it is not true, that you can integrate arbitrary differential forms. Furthermore the integral in $ℝ^n$ transforms under diffeomorphisms $ϕ$ with $|\det(Dϕ)|$ (compare also Why do differential forms and integrands have different transformation behaviours under diffeomorphisms?), so the coordinate representation of $L$ should transform accordingly. This leads to the notion of the density bundle $L = |Λ|^1(M)$, where integration is well-defined.

As for form bundles $Λ^k(M)$, you need (at least implicitly) an isomorphism from $Λ^k(M)$ to $L$, which then defines integration on $Λ^k(M)$. This leaves only $0$-forms (i.e. the trivial line bundle) and $\dim M$-forms (i.e. volume forms). To define an isomorphism $Λ^n(M) → L$ the manifold has to be orientable and you need to choose an orientation. For $C^∞(M) → L$ multiplication by a certain density $μ ∈ Γ(L)$ suffices.

So alternating forms do not have much to do with it. They are just a way to construct $Λ^n(M)$, which is isomorphic to $|Λ|^1(M)$ if the manifold is orientable.

bodo
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  • I never came across the notion of density bundle in the lessons concerning integration over manyfolds... I'll try to have a look and try to understand better your answer... Qualitatively you say that to define an integration we need an isomorphism to this density bundle which can only be defined in the case of 0 and n alternating forms where n is the dimension of the variety but not for example for plain multilinear n forms? – Thomas Feb 23 '15 at 21:22
  • @Thomas: Yes, because only those bundles have rank 1. Often one says the manifold must be oriented and defines the integral for volume forms right away by choosing only oriented coordinates. But the choice of orientation is the implicit isomorphism $Λ^n(M) → L$. – bodo Feb 23 '15 at 21:30