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Assume $f_n , f \in L^1 $ and almost every where we have $ f_n \to f$ then I want to show that $\int|f_n-f| \to 0$ iff $\int|f_n| \to \int|f|$

One side is abvious by trinagle inequality , for the other side I think I must use a theorem like Dominated covergence theorem but I can not reach a conclusion. Is there a modiffied form of dominated covergence theorem.

I need some hint , thanks.

Fin8ish
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