How to prove $\phi(z)=\sum\limits_{m\in Z}(\sum\limits_{n\in Z} \frac{1}{(m-1+nz)(m+nz)})=2-\frac{2\pi i}{z}$ with $Im(z)>0$ and $(m,n)\neq(0,0),(1,0)$?
For $m$ fixed, $a_m=\sum\limits_{n\in Z} \frac{1}{(m-1+nz)(m+nz)}=\sum\limits_{n\in Z} b_n$ converges absolutely since $(m-1+nz)(m+nz)=O(n^2z^2)$, so $a_m$ is independent of the summation order of $n$, but it still needs $\sum\limits_{m}a_m$ to be converged absolutely in order to be independent of the summation order of $m$, and that's hard to show.
It may be useful that $\frac{1}{(m-1+nz)(m+nz)}=\frac{1}{m-1+nz}-\frac{1}{m+nz}$, but I don't know how to proceed further, so how to prove $\phi(z)=2-\frac{2\pi i}{z}$ with $Im(z)>0$?