I know the Cantor set is uncountable, but I just came with an argument that shows it is countable. Obviously my argument is wrong, but I just don't know where is the mistake. Here it is.
Let $C$ be the Cantor set, we know $C$ is closed, so $A = [0,1]\setminus C$ is open. As $A$ is open, we know there is a collection of open disjoint intervals $(a_n,b_n)_{n=1}^\infty$ such that $A=\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty(a_n,b_n)$.
Given any intervals $(a_n,b_n)$ and $(a_m,b_m)$ (suppose $b_n\leq a_m$), we may have or not points of $C$ in $[b_n, a_m]$.
If $b_n<a_m$, is not possible that $[b_n, a_m]\subset C$, for $C$ is nowhere dense. In this case, there is more open intervals inside $[b_n, a_m]$. So we get more intervals and to the same reasoning.
If $b_n=a_m$, it is possible that this point is in $C$.
My problem is how to manage the first case. Looks like doesn't matter if there is more open intervals inside this 'gaps', in the final I will have only the cases where $b_n=a_m$. In other words, these are the only possible points in $C$, therefore $C$ is countable.