Paul Erdős gave a simple argument to show that $\pi(x) \ge \dfrac{1}{2}\log_2 x$.
Is it possible to tweak the argument and get a better estimate? I am wondering how good an estimate for $\pi(x)$ can be achieved using a variation of his reasoning.
I explored the possibility of changing $m^2$ to $m^3$ so that we have for any $y \le x$, we have:
$y = p_1^{e_1}p_2^{e_2}\ldots p_n^{e_n}m^3$ and $e_i\in\left\{0,1,2\right\}$ and $m \in \mathbb{Z}$
But this gets us to: $m \le \sqrt[3]{x}$ so that $3^n\times \sqrt[3]{x} \ge x$ and $\pi(x) \ge \dfrac{2}{3}\log_3 x$ which is weaker than $\pi(x) \ge \dfrac{1}{2}\log_2 x$
Has anyone thought of other creative tweaks that can improve the result?