So, each Fermat number is either prime or is divisible by a unique prime number which does not divide any other Fermat number
– lab bhattacharjeeJan 17 '15 at 18:45
2
Let $p_m$ be the smallest prime divisor of $F_m$. Since the $F_k$ are pairwise relatively prime, the $p_m$ are distinct. So the set of all $p_m$ is infinite. (The relative primality is not hard to prove, but it looks as if you are not expected to give a proof.)
– André NicolasJan 17 '15 at 18:46
Let $m\lt n$. Note that $2^n=(2^m)^{n-m}$ So if $x=F_m$ then $F_n=(x-1)^{2^{n-m}}+1$. Using the binomial theorem to expand, we find that $x$ divides $F_{n}-2$. So any divisor $d$ of $F_m$ divides $F_n-2$. If $d$ also divides $F_n$, then $d$ divides $2$. But $d$ is odd, so $d=1$. (You will find variant proofs on MSE, the question has been asked repeatedly. Answers are likely to be less terse than this comment.)
– André NicolasJan 17 '15 at 19:05
@AlexisDailey: I assumed your "prove its primality" was intended to mean relative primality. We do not need to identify the smallest prime factor of $F_m$ to know there is one. But if you are looking for efficient algorithms, there are methods for Fermat numbers that are much more efficient than the "general" methods for numbers of the same size.
– André NicolasJan 17 '15 at 21:48