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So I proved a certain theorem about finite dimensional inner-product spaces, but after completing the proof, I realized the only point where I used the idea of orthogonality was the construction of an orthonormal basis. Everywhere else, I just used the norm instead, which leads me to wonder if I could generalize the theorem to finite dimensional normed spaces as well. The proof would be the same everywhere except for the point where I use the orthonormal basis. I'd have to use a basis such that the norm of every member is $1$ and for two distinct vectors $x$ and $y$, $$||x+y||^2=||x||^2+||y||^2$$ Which is the analog of orthogonality in a normed space. So my question is, does such a basis exist for all finite dimensional normed spaces and if yes, how do we show the existence? I'd be much obliged if you could give me some pointers.

sayantankhan
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  • http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gram%E2%80%93Schmidt_process – nomen Jan 16 '15 at 02:49
  • I already know the Gram-Schmidt process. But that only works for inner product spaces. I want something for normed spaces. – sayantankhan Jan 16 '15 at 02:52
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    There is no analogue in a general normed space, there is only linear independence in that setting. Indeed, if the norm doesn't satisfy the parallelogram law then you can't even pick a compatible inner product. You might be able to build a basis that has the property you mentioned, but it won't have any nice properties like those of orthogonal projection. – Ian Jan 16 '15 at 02:53
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    But I don't need a compatible inner product. All I need is a normal basis such that norms of the members add pythagoreously (is that even a term?) as shown above. Are you saying that requirement is equivalent to having a compatible inner product? – sayantankhan Jan 16 '15 at 02:57
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    Yes. The inner product is constructed using the polarization identity. – Ian Jan 16 '15 at 03:03
  • Yeah, I think I get it now. Thanks. Could you convert your last couple of comments into an answer so I could close the question? – sayantankhan Jan 16 '15 at 03:10
  • I think you could come up with a basis satisfying this for a given norm (e.g in the sup norm, $x = (1,0), y = (\sqrt 2 - 1,1)$ works, I'm pretty sure), but I don't know an outline of a constructive procedure (like gram-schmidt) for a general norm. Nor, as Ian suggests, will this basis have nice properties. For instance, another choice for $y$ above is $y = (\sqrt 3 - 1, \sqrt{2})$, but this $y$ isn't "parallel" (a multiple of) my first choice for $y$. – BaronVT Jan 16 '15 at 03:13
  • I'm not so much interested in the construction of the basis as much as the truth of existence for a wide class of normed spaces. – sayantankhan Jan 16 '15 at 03:15
  • I guess it's also worth noting that my second example doesn't have unit norm. – BaronVT Jan 16 '15 at 03:20

2 Answers2

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As a very beginning, this is true for all real normed spaces of dimension 2. (For dimension 0 and 1 it is trivial.)

Let $\|\cdot\|$ be any norm on $\mathbb{R}^2$ and choose any $x$ with $\|x\|=1$. Let $\gamma : [0,1] \to \mathbb{R}^2 \setminus \{0\}$ be any continuous path connecting $x$ to $-x$ that avoids 0. Set $f(t) = \left\| x + \frac{\gamma(t)}{\|\gamma(t)\|}\right\|^2$, so that $f(0)=\|x+x\|^2 = 4$ and $f(1) = \|x-x\|^2=0$. Now $f$ is continuous, so by the intermediate value theorem there exists $t_0$ such that $f(t_0) = 2$. Set $y = \frac{\gamma(t_0)}{\|\gamma(t_0)\|}$. Then $\|y\|^2 = 1$ so $\|x+y\|^2 = \|x\|^2 + \|y\|^2$ as desired. Moreover, clearly $y$ is neither $x$ nor $-x$ so $\{x,y\}$ is a basis for $\mathbb{R}^2$.

Note that if you want to use this to prove something, you should be extremely careful that the only property of "orthonormal basis" you use is that $\|x+y\|^2 = \|x\|^2 + \|y\|^2 = 2$. Many other properties of orthonormal bases won't hold in general. For example, the "Pythagorean theorem" $\|ax+by\|^2 = a^2 + b^2$ need not hold. (Consider $\mathbb{R}^2$ with the sup norm, $x = (1,0)$, $y=(\sqrt{2}-1, 1)$, $a=2$, $b=1$. Then $\|ax+by\|^2 = \|(1+\sqrt{2}, 1)\|^2 = (1+\sqrt{2})^2 \ne 2^2 + 1^2$.)

Nate Eldredge
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This addresses a slightly different question, but I think it is the case that the only real normed spaces in which the parallelogram law $\|x+y\|^{2} + \|x-y\|^{2} = 2(\|x\|^{2} + \|y\|^{2})$ holds are inner product spaces.

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    Yes, this is true; see http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/21792/norms-induced-by-inner-products-and-the-parallelogram-law – Nate Eldredge Jan 16 '15 at 05:11
  • @NateEldredge : Thanks, I knew it was true, I was just being a bit understated, as I couldn't locate a proper reference. It's also true for complex normed spaces. – Geoff Robinson Jan 16 '15 at 05:57