Given a continuous linear map $T:E\to F$ where $E,F$ are normed vector spaces, I am wondering about the trivial question whether for any subset $U\subset E$, it holds or not: $$T(U^c)=T(U)^c$$ I could make sense of this just under the assumption that $T$ is surjective, but I am not sure if the following reasoning is correct:
- trivially we have that $E=U\oplus U^c$, therefore $T(E)=T(U)\oplus T(U^c)$ by linearity of $T$.
- by surjectivity we have that $T(E)=F$, hence $F=T(U)\oplus T(U^c)$ $\underline{which \ implies}$: $$T(U^c)=T(U)^c\ $$
I am not really sure about the underlined implication. Any idea?