4

Is it true that $({\aleph_1})^{\aleph_0} = {\aleph_1}$?

My scenario is as follows:

The cardinal number of $\mathbb R$ is $|\mathbb R|={\aleph_1}$ and the cardinal number of the Cartesian product of countable sets of real numbers $\mathbb R \times \mathbb R \times \mathbb R \times\ldots$ is $({\aleph_1})^{\aleph_0}$. I wonder whether $({\aleph_1})^{\aleph_0}$ is still ${\aleph_1}$?

Also, what is $({\aleph_0})^{\aleph_0}$, the cardinal number of the Cartesian product of countable sets of natural numbers $\mathbb N \times\mathbb N \times\mathbb N \times\ldots$?

Asaf Karagila
  • 393,674
zxzx179
  • 1,507

1 Answers1

7

No. It is not necessarily true. And it is also not necessarily true that $|\Bbb R|=\aleph_1$, this is known as the Continuum Hypothesis, and it is not provable nor refutable from the usual axioms of set theory.

Note that $2\leq\aleph_1\leq2^{\aleph_0}$, and therefore $2^{\aleph_0}\leq\aleph_1^{\aleph_0}\leq(2^{\aleph_0})^{\aleph_0}=2^{\aleph_0}$.

But if $\aleph_1<2^{\aleph_0}$, meaning if the Continuum Hypothesis fails, then $\aleph_1<\aleph_1^{\aleph_0}$.

Asaf Karagila
  • 393,674