I am a little confused going over some review of limits and sequences.
The question is as follows;
$$\lim_{n\to \infty} n\sin(1/n) $$
What I tried was I rewrote $n\sin(1/n)$ as $$ \frac{\sin(\frac{1}{n})}{\frac{1}{n}} $$
But what the professor did next is where I got a little confused, he introduced $x=\frac{1}{n}$ and then wrote $f(x)=\frac{\sin x}{x}$ and $$\lim_{x\to 0} f(x)= 1 $$ and from this he concluded that the limit of the sequence was $1$. Im not sure how this conclusion was made. Is it always valid to introduce new varaible like that? I feel like I am missing some important theromes relating limits of $n$ and $\frac{1}{n}$.
Thanks in advance for any hints,answers, advice and help.