Does summation $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n(\log n)^{a}}$$ converge if $a>1$?
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2Use the Integral Test. – André Nicolas Jan 02 '15 at 02:36
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Yes, integral from $2$ to $\infty$ of $\frac{1}{x\ln^a x},dx$ converges, so our series converges. – André Nicolas Jan 02 '15 at 02:40
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Yes it does. Integral Test again. – André Nicolas Jan 02 '15 at 02:44
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Hint: The convergence property easily follows from Cauchy Condensation test .
Edit: In more detail, the suggested series has the same convergence properties as
$$ \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{2^n}{2^n\left(\log2^n\right)^a}{}={}\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{n^a\left(\log2\right)^a}{}={}\dfrac{1}{\left(\log2\right)^a}\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{n^a} $$
which, being a $p$-series, converges for $a>1$.

ki3i
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The integral test will also do the job easily.
$$\int_2^\infty {dt \over t \log(t)^a} = \int_{\log(2)}^\infty {dt \over t^a}.$$
Do not use $n = 1$ or you will have a domain annoyance.

ncmathsadist
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