If $\sqrt{x^2} = \pm x$, then why does $\sqrt{(x+2)^2} = x+2$ and not $\pm (x+2)$?
This is driving me crazy, so feel free to elucidate. Thanks!
---EDIT---
I'm not sure how the other questions' answers would help answer my own question, but it doesn't really matter now that I've figured it out. After thinking a bit about some of what @Daniel Hast typed on a similar question I asked, I realized that the reason why $\sqrt{(x+2)^2} = x+2$ was that more generally, given that $\sqrt{x} = r$ such that $r^2 = x$, squaring $r$ in $\sqrt{x} = r$ produced $(\sqrt{x})^2 = r^2 = x$ and subsequently $(\sqrt{x})^2 = x$.