I'm reading the following book: http://www.cs.princeton.edu/courses/archive/spring10/cos433/mathcs.pdf.
In page 26, they attempt to prove the following theorem using Induction:
For all $n \in \mathbb{N}$: $$1 + 2 + \cdots + n = \frac{n(n+1)}{2}$$
In order to prove the theorem we need to prove the following statements:
- $P(0)$ is true.
- For all $n \in \mathbb{N}$, $P(n)$ implies $P(n + 1)$.
Proving the first one is easy:
$$P(0) = 0 = 0 * (0 + 1) / 2$$ $$= 0 = 0 * 1 / 2$$ $$= 0 = 0 / 2$$ $$= 0 = 0$$
In order to prove the second, they state the following:
$$1+2+\cdots + n + (n+1) = \frac{n(n+1)}{2} + (n+1) \tag{1}$$ $$ = \frac{(n+1)(n+2)}{2} \tag{2}$$
I don't understand how they get from (1) to (2) and how that proves that proves that for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$, $P(n)$ implies $P(n + 1)$ is true.
I'm clearly missing something in the process. Can someone clear the fog for me?