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Please refer to : How to prove that $\int_{0}^{\infty}\sin{x}\arctan{\frac{1}{x}}\,\mathrm dx=\frac{\pi }{2} \big(\frac{e-1}e\big)$

The answer by @Venus.

What is the procedure in converting that single integral, dividing it into parts, and making it a double integral?

And also, how Venus took $\sin(x)$ and brought it inside the first integral, and interchanging the integrals?

What is the criterion?

I am very interested in this.

Any links advice or comment is very helpful.

Thanks!

Amad27
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