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I learned about Banach spaces a few weeks ago. A Banach space is a complete normed vector space. This of course made me wonder: are there unnormed vector spaces? If there are, can anyone please provide any examples?

Some thoughts:

A complete space is where all Cauchy sequences converge.

A normed vector space is a vector space (say, over $\mathbb{R})$ on some norm $N$ (which is a function that maps $N\to\mathbb{R}$), where the norm obeys the triangle inequality, the norm of a vector is non-negative, and if you have a scalar being multiplied by a vector, you can factor the scalar out, but it'll have absolute value braces.

I'm not really sure what is needed in order to have an unnormed vector space (perhaps the vector space necessarily needs to be infinite dimensional?). Perhaps something really weird like the zero space?

Thanks for any insight.

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    There are certainly incomplete spaces. – amcalde Dec 20 '14 at 04:34
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    Yes, I know there are spaces which are not Banach. I can show that such a space is not Banach by showing that some Cauchy sequence doesn't converge. But I've never shown a space is not Banach by showing (if this is even possible) that the space lacks a norm – Sujaan Kunalan Dec 20 '14 at 04:43
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    As you see, your question was quite not clear : this manifests itself in the fact that you got (so far!) four answers to four different questions :-) – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Dec 20 '14 at 05:03
  • Yes, there are vector spaces without a norm. Yes, there are normed spaces that are not complete in the norm of the space. Some asides: there are normed spaces for which the norm is not induced by any inner product. There are normed spaces which are complete in the norm induced by the inner product. Finally, there are normed spaces which are not complete in the norm induced by the inner product. – JohnD Dec 20 '14 at 05:18
  • @Freeze_S, frankly, I find it of rather poor taste to talk about people tending to think trivialities or technicalities or be "limited" to whatever you may think they ar elimited without being explicit about what and about whom you are talking about. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Dec 21 '14 at 02:06
  • @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez: Yes, that was bad; my temper got me. I'm sorry for that comment. My apologies if somebody felt offended. (Deleted it.) – C-star-W-star Dec 21 '14 at 02:11
  • @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez: Hope you don't take it the wrong way: It just struggles me that there answers of the form it is a vector space so it has no norm a priori -of course not- or if it is a tvs then the topology may be not normable -that seems standard textbook- but the question though not stated in common jargon is just can you always endow it with a norm and your answer seems the only one to really adress this. It is even in your answer that comments like this appear. -.- (Except copper.hat's comment which seems just a friendly suggestion. :)) – C-star-W-star Dec 21 '14 at 02:28

7 Answers7

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While your question could have multiple answers, perhaps the closest to what you are looking for is the notion of a non-metrizable vector space.

In the general setting of topological vector spaces, we consider (as one might guess from the name) vector spaces endowed with a topology so that we can discuss ideas like the continuity of linear operators. Normed vector spaces are examples of topological vector spaces where the topology is induced by a given norm.

A non-metrizable vector space is a topological vector space whose topology does not arise from any metric. These are rather common in functional analysis. For example, if $X$ is a Banach space, then the weak-* topology on $X^*$ is never metrizable unless $X$ is finite-dimensional. Another family of examples are locally convex spaces, a natural generalization of Banach spaces, which are not metrizable unless their topology is generated by a countable collection of seminorms that separate points.

Gyu Eun Lee
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Vector spaces are, by default, unnormed. A norm is extra structure we add to a vector space, to define a normed vector space.

  • This is the best answer. Vector spaces (aka linear spaces) are an axiomatic construction, and the definition of a norm is not within the axioms. – Anselmo Aug 26 '22 at 20:44
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Every (real or complex) vector space admits a norm. Indeed, every vector space has a basis you can consider the corresponding «$\ell^1$» norm.

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    It might be worth clarifying that the admitted norm may not be compatible with the topology (if the vector space has a topology). – copper.hat Dec 20 '14 at 05:53
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    It should be noted that for the "every vector space has a basis", you need the Axiom of Choice (if I remember correctly). – Taladris Dec 20 '14 at 17:31
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    @copper.hat Vector spaces do not have topologies. Topological vector spaces do. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Dec 20 '14 at 22:07
  • "every vector space has a basis, you can consider the corresponding ... ..." – this approach is often worded as "every vector space is free", though that's IMO a pretty bad point of view. Yes, there exists always an isomorphism to a free vector space (and it does in general require AC), but it won't typically be canonical. Even if the norm is compatible with a topology that might already be defined, this doesn't imply that the norm is otherwise very meaningful. – leftaroundabout Dec 21 '14 at 00:35
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    @leftaroundabout, that the norm is not canonical is a rather absurd complaint, as I started with nothing but a vector space. If the question had been «does every vector space have a canonical norm?» or «does it have a natural norm?» or something along those lines, I would understand, but as the question was most certainly not that, I don't. Similarly, the fact that the norm be useful or not is absolutely irrelevant to its existance; compaibility with a topology that might also exist on the vector space is, likewise, quite irrelevant. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Dec 21 '14 at 01:58
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    Honestly, I cannot conceive what can possibly be wrong with the "point of view" that vector spaces have bases. Likewise, commutative rings have maximal ideals, and the unit ball in Banach spaces is weakly* compact. IMO the point of view that there may be something "bad" about this point of view is pretty silly. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Dec 21 '14 at 02:03
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    (I could not care less for the fact that the axiom of choice is needed for vector spaces to have bases; it probably also needs the comprehension axiom, and no one feels compelled to mention that...) – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Dec 21 '14 at 02:07
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    The question was (the negative of) "is every vector space normed". To me, that's closer to "does it have a canonical norm" than to "is it possible to define some norm on it". More so if you can't even do it constructively. – But I admit, this is philosophical quarrelling over the meaning of the word "unnormed", which I don't think is properly defined anywhere. – leftaroundabout Dec 21 '14 at 11:06
  • @leftaroundabout From the OP's description of his knowledge in the subject (just started on Banach spaces) it seemed to me that he was looking for interesting vector spaces whose interesting structure is not given by a norm. Thus I took the liberty of introducing topological vector spaces into my answer. But I like Mariano's answer since it addresses a more direct interpretation of the OP's query, and I agree with him that without more structure on the vector space there is no making sense of the notion of a "canonical norm." – Gyu Eun Lee Dec 21 '14 at 18:31
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Outlining the construction by Mariano Suárez-Alvare...

Problem

Does every plain vector space admit a norm?

Construction

Given a plain vector space $V$.

Choose a Hamel basis $\mathcal{B}$.

Denote functions with finite support by $\mathbb{R}^\mathcal{B}_0$.

Decide for a norm there $\|(\lambda_b)_{b\in\mathcal{B}}\|$.

Now, regard the isomorphism: $$\Phi:V\to\mathbb{R}^\mathcal{B}_0:\sum_{b\in\mathcal{B}}\lambda_bb\mapsto\left(\lambda_b\right)_{b\in\mathcal{B}}$$

Then, it pulls back the norm: $\|\sum_{b\in\mathcal{B}}\lambda_bb\|:=\|(\lambda_b)_{b\in\mathcal{B}}\|$

Special Example

Take the norm of $\ell^2$.

The norm becomes: $\|\sum_{b\in\mathcal{B}}\lambda_bb\|_2^2=\sum_{b\in\mathcal{B}}|\lambda_b|^2$

Especially, it becomes an orthonormal basis: $\langle b,b'\rangle=\delta_{b,b'}$

Conclusion

Every plain vector space admits a norm - no matter of its dimension.

Outview

Does every algebra with unit admit a compatible norm: Existence of Norm for C*-Algebras

C-star-W-star
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If $V$ is finite dimensional, it is normable, in the sense that you can use an isomorphism into $\mathbb R^n$ to pull back the $\mathbb R^n$-norm . And then this norm is equivalent to any other norm topology-wise, i.e., in a finite- dimensional space, all norms are equivalent in this sense.

RikOsuave
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  • Not every vector space is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^n$; a finite dimensional vector space is isomorphic to $\mathbb{K}^n$, where $\mathbb{K}$ is some (possibly finite) field – Zach Effman Dec 20 '14 at 18:21
  • You're right, for some reason I was assuming we were working over the Reals for some reason. – RikOsuave Dec 21 '14 at 01:09
  • @ZachEffman, in a context where norms are being discussed, it is a standrd assumption that the field is either $\mathbb R$ or $\mathbb C$. One can consider normed vector spaces over other fields, but as this is rather non-standard when one does so one is explicit about it. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Dec 21 '14 at 18:41
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While you might be able to define a norm, there are real world circumstances where you might not want to. Let's take an example motivated more from science/engineering than mathematics. Consider the vector space defined by the tuple x = (a mm, b kg) where a and b are real numbers and mm and kg mean "millimeter" and "kilogram." To a scientist/engineer, the notion of a naive L1 metric might seem ludicrous, because you can't add 1mm + 1kg. Yes, the metric $\lVert x \rVert = |a| + |b|$, which scales the first element by 1/mm and the second by 1/kg, is a metric, but it's a completely arbitrary one: why is 1mm in some sense "equivalent" to 1kg? You might have a hard time arguing with me if I instead declare that you should scale the second component by 1/g rather than 1/kg, but of course that will give us very different notions of distance. (There are exceptions: e.g., in relativity theory, the speed of light makes 1s equivalent to 3e8m, but in other contexts one might not agree with that equivalence.)

From the standpoint of a mathematician, I suppose the question is what is the right topology for such a vector space. If you decide to allow open sets of the form $I_a \otimes I_b$, where $I_a$ and $I_b$ are open intervals with respect to the first and second tuple element and $\otimes$ indicates the Cartesian product, then the entire space is second-countable and satisfies the Urysohn metrization theorem. However, if instead you say that the topology is defined through open sets only of the form $I_a \otimes b$ and $a \otimes I_b$ (i.e., have zero "width" along one of the two coordinates), and if the numerical coefficients can be any real number, then I think the space is rigorously non-metrizable.

tholy
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Of course there are. :-) First of all, there are linear spaces which are not endowed by a topology, and there are topological vector spaces which are not endowed by a norm. So a wise question is: when a topology of a topological vector space $X$ is generated by a norm? It seems it is iff $X$ is a locally convex Hausdorff space containing such a neighborhood $U$ of the zero that for each neighborhood $V$ of the zero there exists a scalar $\lambda>0$ such that $\lambda U\subset V$.

Alex Ravsky
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