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After (nearly) completing my course in topology, something weird just stuck out to me which I hadn't considered before. When first discussing continuity, we often use the following definition:

Let $X$ and $Y$ be topological spaces. We say that $f:X\to Y$ is continuous if for every open set $V\in Y$, $f^{-1}(V)$ is open in $X$.

This is a rather opaque definition and isn't quite as easily relatable to the notion we develop on $\Bbb R$ as the following definition:

Let $X$ and $Y$ be topological spaces. We say that $f:X\to Y$ is continuous if for each $x\in X$ and neighborhood $V$ containing $f(x)$, there is a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $f(U)\subseteq V$.

These are of course equivalent definitions. However the latter is quite easy to connect to our normal intuition built up from real analysis: if our $x$-values are "close", then our $y$-values must be "close." Pedagogically, why have we somewhat cast away the latter definition as a mere equivalence and opted for the former? Clearly the latter is what led to the former and is, arguably, easier to latch on to. Is this somewhat of a byproduct of the category-theoretic nature of the former (with $f$ being a morphism of topological spaces) and math's general trend towards category-theoretic personifications? Can it also be attributed to early topologists wanting to separate topology from analysis in this way?

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    Or, maybe because $U\mapsto f^{-1}(U)$ is a Boolean homomorphism, where as $V\mapsto f(V)$ is not. – Asaf Karagila Dec 16 '14 at 04:04
  • @AsafKaragila I'm guessing you mean that the inverse image map acts as an algebra homomorphism with regards to the set operations of union and intersection? – Cameron Williams Dec 16 '14 at 04:06
  • Indeed I do. And complements, don't forget complements! – Asaf Karagila Dec 16 '14 at 04:10
  • @AsafKaragila Of course not! – Cameron Williams Dec 16 '14 at 04:12
  • It’s far simpler, and it gets the conceptually irrelevant complications of the metric case out of the way. In many situations it’s easier to use. It’s a global definition of a global property; the alternative is a local definition of a property at a point. I consider it pædagogically preferable to start with the nice definition and show that that ugly (and for many students confusing) calculus definition actually wasn’t quite so bad after all. (And I doubt that it has anything to do with a trend towards category-theoretic presentations: it was standard when I learnt topology, and that ... – Brian M. Scott Dec 16 '14 at 05:31
  • ... was before category theory — which I dislike — became at all popular. – Brian M. Scott Dec 16 '14 at 05:32

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You can already see that your version involving neighborhoods is more complicated than the version involving open sets. In general, I find proving things much easier in terms of open sets, and neighborhoods are mainly for doing things that look like calculations.

An important point is that topology is more clearly expressed in terms of open sets. When you talk about topology via a basis of open neighborhoods, it obscures what the topological space actually is. If I topologize the plane where my neighborhoods are the interiors of squares, is that a different topological space than if I take the open discs as neighborhoods?

So if you define the notion of topological space in terms of open sets, you then have (at least) two choices about how to introduce continuous functions:

  • Introduce them in terms of the open sets
  • Introduce the notion of a basis for the topology, then define continuity in terms of a basis

I think the second choice would obscure things more. Not only do you delay introducing the notion of continuity, but the definition is also resting upon more complex ideas.

  • This is exactly the kind of answer I was looking for. I suppose in that context, pedagogically it makes more sense to just speak of the open sets since our open neighborhoods are far from being unique; any given realization of the open neighborhoods could be horrible to deal with. Historically, the second definition is the most logical but from a pedagogical and clarity perspective, it makes much more sense to just consider the first definition and leaving the second definition as a way of motivating it. – Cameron Williams Dec 16 '14 at 04:28
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    "When you talk about topology via a basis of open neighborhoods, it obscures what the topological space actually is." This seems arguable to me. – Pedro Dec 16 '14 at 05:00
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    I must agree to some extent with @PedroTamaroff at least in the following way. A topology is a rather large thing, typically consisting of a rather large cardinality of subsets and it is quite hard (if at all possible) to describe these sets directly, let alone understand them. In the presence of a metric one can describe the induced topology quite straightforwardly, and in the presence of a basis one typically obtains a much more manageable way to describing the topology. Both of these methods help in understand what topology is (and in fact, all topologies are metrizable, in a suitable way). – Ittay Weiss Dec 16 '14 at 05:14
  • @IttayWeiss Regarding your last comment "all topologies are metrizable, in a suitable way", are you referring to the work of Ralph Kopperman? If not, would you care to elaborate? Thanks! – johndoe Dec 16 '14 at 17:24
  • @Ittay: I agree that a basis for the topology can be a useful way to get a handle on that topology, in much the same way that a basis is useful for vector spaces, or a presentation is useful for groups, or that it's useful to express a ring as a quotient of a polynomial ring or other familiar ring. But these representations have superfluous detail -- the pair of a topological space with a basis is a different sort of structure than simply a topological space -- which makes it more complicated to pick out what is the actual concept being taught and what is not. –  Dec 16 '14 at 17:42
  • @Hurkyl and I must agree to some extent with you too :) The question "what is topology" is the issue here. There are different models to saying what a topology is (e.g., in terms of open sets, closed sets, closure operators (which all give rise to isomorphic categories) or in terms of Flagg's continuity spaces (which gives an equivalent category)). As long as the categories are equivalent, we are speaking of different models for the same thing. So, which are the 'best' models? That depends of course. I personally like Flagg's continuity spaces. It's simple and intuitive. – Ittay Weiss Dec 16 '14 at 18:34
  • @johndoe I refer more to Flagg's continuity spaces, which are based on ideas of Kopperman. – Ittay Weiss Dec 16 '14 at 18:35
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I think it is a pity that the definition of a continuous function isn't more intuitive. A lot of students have difficult to grasp topology even though it shouldn't be so and a more intuitive approach would make their studies much easier. The usual definition should be a theorem in my opinion. Given a function $f:X\to Y$, my favorite definition is:

  • For all sets $B\subset Y$, it holds that $x\in \overline{f^{-1}(B)}\Rightarrow f(x)\in \overline{B}$

that tells me something like "if $x$ is close to $f^{-1}(B)$ then $f(x)$ must be close to $B$".

Lehs
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It isn't an answer to your question, but it's too long for a comment. I prefer the open-sets definition (as opposed to what I'll call the points definition) for a few reasons.

First, it is simple. It quantifies over only one type of object (open sets) whereas the points definition quantifies over two (points and sets). I know that at the end of the day, everything is a set, but, hey, mathematicians do think in types!

Second, it is economical. A topology is a designation of precisely which subsets of $X$ we are considering to be open; nowhere in the definition of a topology are we considering the points of $X$ individually (it could be argued that "$X\in \tau$" considers them, but only in their entirety!). Whether a function is continuous or not depends solely on the topology, so it is nice to have a definition which depends solely on the topology.

Indeed (and this could be a third reason), continuity has a nice functorial description. The inverse image functor takes a map $f:X\to Y$ and gives you a map $f^*:P(Y)\to P(X)$ defined by $f^*(U) = \{x\in X : f(x)\in U\}$. The direct image functor takes a map $g:A\to B$ and gives you a map $g_*:P(A)\to P(B)$ defined by $g_*(C) = \{g(x): x\in C\}$. Now, a map $f:(X,\tau)\to(Y,\tau')$ between topological spaces is continuous if and only if $(f^*)_*(\tau')\subseteq \tau$ (with equality if and only if $f$ is a homeomorphism). In particular, automorphisms of $(X,\tau)$ are precisely permutations $f$ of $X$ such that $(f^*)_*$ fixes $\tau$.

Unit
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  • The points argument is a pretty good bolster to the open sets definition I think. In which order do you interpret $(f^)_$? – Cameron Williams Dec 16 '14 at 04:41
  • I had hoped the brackets would make it clear -- it is the direct image of the inverse image of $f$, so that $(f^)_(\tau') = {f^*(U):U\in\tau'}={f^{-1}(U):U\in\tau'}$. – Unit Dec 16 '14 at 04:45
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    The functorial argument is actually pretty nice, I guess along the lines that I hinted at (but much more precise). Thanks for the reply, definitely helped to solidify the reasoning. – Cameron Williams Dec 16 '14 at 04:47
  • Sentences like "Let $x\in S$ and $U$ be an open neighborhood of $x.$" and "Since $x\in\overline T$ there exists a point $y\in U\cap T.$" are wordy, repetitive and should be avoided in my opinion. However, workarounds to neighborhood proofs can be very difficult to find sometimes. This leads me to wonder if they are unavoidable for proving certain results (which do not explicitly involve neighborhoods). – mathematrucker May 12 '23 at 13:55
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One can define the seemingly different concept of a neighborhood space: one defines at each point $x\in X$ a set ${\scr N}_x$ called the neighborhoods of $x$ such that ${\scr N}_x$ isa filter with respect to inclusion (it's nonempty, while $N\in{\scr N}_x$ and $N'\supseteq N$ then $N'\in {\scr N}_x$, and $N,N'\in {\scr N}_x$ then $N\cap N'\in {\scr N}_x$), and is such that for any $N\in {\scr N}_x$ there is ${\scr N}_x\ni O\subseteq N$ such that $O\in {\scr N}_y$ for every $y\in O$. You can check that the set of neighborhoods of a point (the collection of sets containing an open set that contains the point) satisfies this. Conversely, defining an open set in a neighborhood space as a set that is a neighborhood of each of its points yields a topology. It is verified this construction is bijective, so indeed one sees we can specify a topology by specifying a neighborhood system at each point. The definition of continuity is what one expects: a function $f:X \to Y$ is continuous at a point $x\in X$ iff for every neighborhood $N$ of $f(x)$, $f^{-1}(N)$ is a neighborhood of $x$.

Sometimes one simply needs to specify a neighborhood basis ${\scr B}_x$, which is slightly weaker: this is a nonempty collection of sets that contain $x$, such that $B,B'\in{\scr B}_x$, there is a third ${\scr B}_x\ni B''\subseteq B'\cap B$ (so this set is directed), and such that for any $B\in {\scr B}_x$ there is $x\in V\subseteq B$ such that $V$ contains an element of ${\scr B}_y$ for each $y\in V$. The clearest example of such a collection is the set of open balls $B(x,\varepsilon),\varepsilon >0$ in a metric space. These are called basic neighborhoods at the point $x$, and the point is that $U\in{\scr N}_x$ iff $U$ contains some $V\in {\scr B}_x$. Here one can specify possibly different systems of basic neighborhoods at a point (for example $B_n=B(x,n^{-1})$ or $V_n=B(x,n^{-2})$. For the space obtained to inherit the same topology, it is necessary and sufficient that every basic neighborhood of one collection contains a basic neighborhood of the other (much like how one checks two metrics are equivalent, i.e. that they give rise to the same topology.)

This might seem cumbersome at first, but it allows for more exotic definitions of topological spaces in (maybe?) a simpler manner: consider the closed upper half plane. Topologize it as follows: for interior points, the basic neighborhoods are the open balls lying inside the open half plane. For points on the real line, the neighborhoods are open balls tangent to the point in question, plus this point. This is a space that is separable (this is easy to check!) but is not second countable, hence it cannot be metrizable.

Pedro
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I think it is just useful to have alternative (equivalent) definitions for terms in topology. There are of course even more ways of characterizing continuity: $f:X\to Y$ is continuous iff $\overline {f[A]}\supseteq f[\overline A]$ for all $A\subseteq X$. It takes some arguing to show these are equivalent. I recall that the definition I just gave was particularly useful when I wanted to prove continuity of the Stone-Cech extension $\beta f:\beta X \to Y$ of a continuous function $f:X\to Y$ from $X$ into a compact Hausdorff space $Y$. The proof was almost immediate. Here are some more that come to mind:

$X$ is connected if

  • there is no proper clopen subset of $X$
  • $X$ is not the union of two nonempty disjoint closed sets
  • $X$ is not the union of two nonempty disjoint open sets
  • $X$ is not the union of two nonempty sets, neither of which contains a point or limit point of the other.

$X$ is T$_1$ if

  • for any distinct $x,y\in X$ there exists an open set containing $x$ missing $y$
  • every singleton is closed in $X$

It is pretty easy to show that those are equivalent. The following are not so trivial, and if you work in continuum theory you will frequently want to use different versions:

A connected compact Hausdorff space $X$ is indecomposable if

  • $X$ is not the union of two proper closed connected subsets
  • every proper closed connected subset of $X$ is nowhere dense
  • for any nonempty open $U,V\subseteq X$, $X$ is the union of two closed sets both of which intersect $U$ and whose intersection is contained in $V$

In short, it makes life much easier when you have equivalent definitions.

Now why is the first definition of continuity you gave the standard definition? My guess is because it is the most elementary and easy to read.

  • I agree that having several equivalent definitions/formulations is extremely useful since there are contexts when some definitions/formulations are not entirely helpful, however I guess historically the most reasonable definition was somewhat thrown to the wayside which is what I wanted to understand. The brevity of the former definition is definitely another contender for why it is often considered the primary definition which I hadn't even considered. – Cameron Williams Dec 16 '14 at 04:10
  • @CameronWilliams The reason why the definition of continuity in terms of points and neighbourhoods was "thrown to the wayside" is that the definition of a topology in terms of points and neighbourhoods (i.e. the way Hausdorff pioneered the subject in his influential "Grundzüge der Mengenlehre" 100 years ago) was left aside in favour of the definition in terms of open sets. Topology via open sets is undoubtably more elegant but also less intuitive somehow. – johndoe Dec 17 '14 at 02:17