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A friend of mine came up with this problem: Let $S^1$ be the unit circle in $ℂ$ and $P$ the space of polynomial functions $S^1 → ℂ$ (with complex coefficients). Is $P$ dense in $C(S^1,ℂ)$?

Stone–Weierstraß is not applicable because $P$ is not closed under complex conjugation. We’re wondering if complex conjugation on $S^1$ (= inverting) is a uniform limit of polynomials. We suspect not, but don’t know how to prove it.

k.stm
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2 Answers2

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Assuming "polynomial" means "polynomial in $z$", i.e. of the form $\sum_{k=0}^n a_k z^k$, then no, they are not dense, and the function $\bar{z}$ is not in their uniform closure.

The high-level reason is that polynomials are holomorphic on the unit disk, holomorphic functions are closed under uniform convergence, and $\bar{z}$ is not holomorphic.

For a direct proof, consider the linear functional $I(f) = \int_{S^1} f(z)\,dz = \int_0^{2\pi} f(e^{i\theta}) i e^{i\theta}\,d\theta$. This is clearly continuous with respect to the uniform norm since $$|I(f)| \le \int_0^{2\pi} |f(e^{i\theta})| |ie^{i\theta}|\,d\theta \le 2 \pi \|f\|_{\infty}.$$

But for any polynomial $f$, you can check that $I(f)=0$. Hence by continuity, $I(f)=0$ for any $f$ in the closure of the polynomials. On the other hand, for $f(z)=\bar{z}$, $I(f) = 2\pi i$, so $f(z)=\bar{z}$ is not in the closure.

(This proof is easy to discover when you know the Cauchy integral theorem, which says that any holomorphic function has $\int_{S^1} f(z)\,dz = 0$, or indeed the same replacing $S^1$ with any nice closed curve.)

Nate Eldredge
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  • You don’t need Morera’s theorem, but only Cauchy’s integral theorem, do you? Or am I missing something? Anyway, really nice proof, I appreciate it a lot! Edit: Oh, from your last paragraph, it is actually clear that you understand Morera’s theorem to be the equivalence. – k.stm Dec 14 '14 at 16:47
  • @k.stm: You're right, thanks. I tend to think of Morera as the "if and only if" theorem, but actually Cauchy is the easy direction and Morera is the converse. Of course, the proof itself doesn't actually use either of them. – Nate Eldredge Dec 14 '14 at 16:52
  • And what if polynomials in $\bar{z}$ are also allowed? – Elle Najt Jan 26 '16 at 17:29
  • @AreaMan: Then Stone-Weierstrass says you do have a dense set. – Nate Eldredge Jan 26 '16 at 19:33
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Ok (almost) every periodic function $g$ on $[0,1]$ can be written in the form $$ g(x) = \sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty c_n e^{2\pi i n x} $$

You can switch from function $f : S^1 \subset \mathbb{C} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ to the periodic function on $[0,1]$ via simple transformation: $e^{2\pi i \theta}$. $$ g(\theta) = f(e^{2\pi i \theta}) $$ This transformation can be seen in some sense as bijection between periodic functions and functions defined on $S^1$. (You would need to exactly specify those function spaces to be true.)

But let's have a look what you get when you transform polynomial. $$ f(z) = \sum_{n=0}^N a_n z^n $$ $$ g(\theta) = f(e^{2\pi i \theta}) = \sum_{n=0}^N a_n e^{2\pi i n \theta} $$ Uupss you are missing those negative terms $e^{-2 \pi i n \theta}$. So you can't get every periodic function on $[0,1]$.


From above you can see that "polynomials" of form $\sum_{n=-N}^n a_n z^n$ are dense in $C(S^1,\mathbb{C})$ and they are holomorphic in $\mathbb{C} \setminus \{0\}$, which is interesting because $\overline z$ is not holomorphic and $\overline z$ was exactly missing in previous. This seams to me as very special to the $S^1$ because $\frac1{z} = \frac{\overline z}{z\overline z} = \overline z $ only on the $S^1$.

Could anyone expand on the thing that harmonic polynomials form basis of $L^2(S^1)$ and real part of holomorphic function is harmonic I guess it is connected to the above but right now I do not have the power to think any more.

tom
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