In the theorem of the book I'm using it states that bijectivity of the substitution function is sufficient. But isn't just locally bijective enough?
Ex:
$\int \frac{x+1}{x^{1/2}}dx=\int \frac{t^2+1}{|t|}dt = \left\{ \begin{array}{lr} \int \frac{t^2+1}{t} & : t>0\\ \int \frac{t^2+1}{-t} & : t<0 \end{array} \right. =2\frac{x^{1/3}}{3}+2x^{1/2}+C$, for $x=t^2 \neq 0$. So, according to my book, $t$ should belong to either the nonnegative reals or nonpositive reals. But from the calculations above, if t belonged to the reals except 0, no harm would come to this world =)... I think.
Am I correct?
Any help would be appreciated.