I want to prove that the limit of the sequence $k^{1/k}$ is $1$ as $k$ tends to infinity without using advanced rules such as L'Hospital's Rule and just using the basic rules in real analysis. How would I go about doing this?

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Hint: consider $x^{1/x}$ for $x \in \mathbb R$ and $x \rightarrow \infty$. Write $x^{1/x} = e^{(1/x)\log x}.$ – jflipp Nov 25 '14 at 09:49
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See this. – David Mitra Nov 25 '14 at 09:49
2 Answers
Consider the sequence $\ \ x_k = k^{\frac1k} - 1 \geq 0$
$k ^{\frac1k} \to 1 \iff x_k \to 0 \ as\ k \to \infty $
Now, $\ k = (1 + x_k)^k$
Apply binomial theorem : $$(1+x_k)^k = 1 + kx_k + \frac{(k)(k-1)}{2}x_k^2 + \ ... \ + x_k^k = k$$
Remove all the extra positive terms except $\frac{(k)(k-1)}{2}x_k^2$ and convert it into an inequality
$$ 0 \leq \frac{(k)(k-1)x_k^2}{2} < k^{\frac1k} \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ for \ k > 1$$
So $$0 \leq x_k^2 < \frac2{k-1}$$
$$ 0 \leq x_k < \sqrt{\frac2{k-1}} \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ since \ \ x_k \geq 0$$ Now apply squeeze theorem, $ x_k \to 0 \ as \ \ k \to \infty $

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1I don't quite understand how to get that inequality from applying the binomial theorem. – quasicoherent_drunk Nov 25 '14 at 11:10
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Hints:
Let $y(k)=k^{\frac1k}$. Then $\ln y=\frac1k \ln k$. So we just compute the limit of $\frac1k \ln k$. Let $t=\ln k$, then $\lim_{k\to \infty} \frac1k \ln k=\lim_{t\to \infty} \frac{t}{e^t}$.

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