Consider the sequence $a(n)$ defined by $a(n) = \sin(n x) \exp(-nt)$, where $n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, \ldots$. The parameter $x$ is a real number. Parameter $t$ is a positive real number. It is clear that the sequence $a(n)$ converges to $0$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$.
We define $S(k)$ as the partial sum of the sequence $a(n)$ from $n = 0$ to $k$. It is straightforward to show that the $S(k)$, in the limit of $k \rightarrow \infty $, converges to the following value $S$:
$$S = \frac{\sin(x)}{2 - 2\cos(x) + (e^t -e^{-t})^2}$$
We see that $S = 0$ for $x = 0$. Now consider $S$ in the limit of $t \rightarrow +0$. We see that in general, except for the case $x = 0$, the result becomes:
$$S = 0.5*cot(x/2) \qquad x \neq 0$$
It is worth noting that for $t > 0$ there is not really a hyperbolic divergence at $x = 0$. The correct limit of $S$ when both $x$ and $t$ are small is $S = x/(x^2 + 4t^2)$. So actually $S$ is continuous! The result $S = 0$ for $x = 0$ is re-confirmed. Furthermore $S$ has a maximum $0.25/t$ fot $x= 2t$ and a minimum $-0.25/t$ for $x = -2t$. Only in the strict limit of $t$ to $0$ the interfacial region vanishes.
Question 1: Suppose we had defined $a(n)$ with a different convergence factor. So instead of the exponential factor $exp(-nt)$ we had used e.g. $(1 + nt)exp(-nt)$ or $1/(exp(nt)-nt)$ or a Gaussian. Would this lead to the same result for $S$ in the limit $t \rightarrow +0$, or to a different one?
Question 2: Under which conditions is it mathematically allowed to extend the result for $S$ in the limit $t \rightarrow +0$ to the case $t = 0$, where the sequence $a(n)$ becomes $sin(n x)$ which is no longer convergent?
EDIT: I now understand that the term "convergence factor" is rarely used in mathematics, and that the preferred terminology is "tempered distribution". I have been informed by Strants that the summation method used above is known as "Abel summation".