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In my differential geometry class we are being asked to prove that the open unit ball

$B^n$ = { $x$ $\in$ $\mathbb{R}$$^n$ such that |$x$| < $1$}

is diffeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$$^n$

I am having a hard time with this as I am brand new not only to differential geometry, but also topology.

I know that I need to construct a smooth, differentiable bijection between the two with a differentiable inverse, but beyond that, I am unsure of where to start. Some guidance in the right direction would be greatly appreciated.

C-star-W-star
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    Try doing it for $n=1$ first. –  Nov 17 '14 at 02:32
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    For a text, I'd recommend Lee's Introduction to Topological Manifolds starts out with an accessible introduction to the relevant topology with a view toward manifolds, and is a readable, compact introduction to the titular subject. (Full disclosure: I know Lee personally.) – Travis Willse Nov 17 '14 at 03:32
  • Ah, thanks! I've heard that his Introduction to Smooth Manifolds book is also great. By any chance would you recommend that I read one before the other, or does it matter? – cappuccino Nov 17 '14 at 06:12
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    My books are written to be read in the order Topological Manifolds -> Smooth Manifolds -> Riemannian Manifolds. You'll get a lot more out of them in that order. Happy reading! – Jack Lee Nov 17 '14 at 16:08
  • Wow, I wasn't expecting to hear back from the author himself! Thanks for the tip, it's very much appreciated. – cappuccino Nov 19 '14 at 05:28
  • @cappuccino: I agree with the others: Lee's Introduction to Smooth Manifolds! – C-star-W-star Jan 04 '15 at 15:17
  • @JackLee: What I really missed was a motivation for why considering regular balls in the construction of a partition of unity (--> compactness!). Apart from this your book is just great!!! Especially, the enlightening comments all over they are really helpful. Thanks for your contribution to literature! :) – C-star-W-star Jan 04 '15 at 15:25
  • You're welcome! – Jack Lee Jan 04 '15 at 16:51

5 Answers5

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Let $\phi \colon [0,1) \to [0, \infty)$ a diffeomorphism with inverse $\psi$. Some possible choices: $t \mapsto \frac{t}{1-t}$, $t \mapsto \tan (\frac{\pi}{2}\cdot t)$.

The map $$x \mapsto \phi(||x||) \cdot \frac{x}{||x||}$$

is a diffeomorphism from $B^n$ to $ \mathbb{R}^n$ with inverse $$y \mapsto \psi(||y||) \cdot \frac{y}{||y||}$$

$\bf{Added:}$ It turns out that the choice of the diffeomorphism from $[0,1)$ to $[0,\infty)$ matters a lot, since $x \mapsto ||x||$ is not smooth at $0$. This was brought to my attention by @Freeze_S and I thank him a lot! One can check that the map obtained for $\phi(t) = \frac{t}{1-t}$ is only $C^1$ at $0$... However, we can use the map so kindly suggested by @Jesus RS: ( big thanks! ) $\phi(t) = \frac{t}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}$ with inverse $\psi(s) = \frac{s}{\sqrt{1+s^2}}$ and it will work just fine. The diffeomorphisms are, as written by @Jesus RS: $$x \mapsto \frac{x}{\sqrt{1-||x||^2}} \\ y \mapsto \frac{y}{\sqrt{1+||y||^2}}$$

In fact, as long as $\phi(t)$ is an odd function of $t$ things will work OK. So, another example is

$$x \mapsto \frac{\tan (\frac{\pi}{2} \cdot ||x|| )}{||x||} \cdot x $$

orangeskid
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  • One must also take (as you surely have in mind) that $\phi$ is increasing, so that $\lim_{t \to 0^+} \phi(t) = 0$. Also, one must check that the map $x \mapsto \phi(||x||) \cdot \frac{x}{||x||}$ (well, pedantically, its extension by $0$ to continuity) is smooth at $0$. Is this true for the candidates $\phi$ you suggest? – Travis Willse Nov 17 '14 at 03:36
  • @Travis: Oh, let's just take the half closed intervals, thanks for the observation! I see the issue with the smoothness at $0$, perhaps harmless since in fact $\frac{\phi(||x||)}{||x||}$ is smooth at $0 \in \mathbb{R}$. – orangeskid Nov 17 '14 at 03:38
  • @orangeskid: No, not harmless! Consider for example: $\phi(|x|)=\frac{1}{1-|x|}$ But the problem is not that it doesn't tend to zero or that it's not increasing the problem is that it is not smooth at zero. That's why for example you have to consider a more sophisticated construction, as is done in Lee's SM. – C-star-W-star Jan 04 '15 at 15:35
  • @Freeze_S Thank you. Yes, there is an issue with the smoothness at $0$. Let me see if anything can be salvaged. Note that the map from the ball to the full space is $x \mapsto \frac{1}{1-||x||} \cdot x$ – orangeskid Jan 06 '15 at 00:41
  • The homeomorphism from the ball to the full space yes: $\varphi(x):=\frac{x}{1-|x|}$ Now, I just remember that there's a diffeomorphism from any open submanifod to the whole manifold. But one needs to check that precisely. – C-star-W-star Jan 06 '15 at 00:59
  • @Freeze_S: Any open star domain is diffeomoprhic to the full space. That may be a little more difficult to prove. – orangeskid Jan 07 '15 at 10:00
  • @orangeskid: You mean diffeomorpic in the usual sense or in the manifold sense. Note that I don't specify its shape but allow any open submanifold. – C-star-W-star Jan 07 '15 at 10:31
  • @Freeze_S: That would be in the usual sense. But I am not sure about the statement for an open submanifold. – orangeskid Jan 07 '15 at 10:35
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    @orangeskid: Ah yes the notions agree then. Ah and my statement was wrong: The open annulus cannot be even homeomorphic to the euclidean space since it is not simply connected. – C-star-W-star Jan 07 '15 at 11:56
  • @Freeze_S: Yes, you are correct. Also check out http://mathoverflow.net/questions/114528/are-homeomorphic-open-subsets-of-mathbbrn-also-diffeomorphic where they mention that there could exists open subsets of an $\mathbb{R}^n$ that are homeomorphic but not diffeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^n$ -- this can happen for some $n$'s. Fascinating! – orangeskid Jan 08 '15 at 01:03
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Or you can try $f(x)=x/\sqrt{1-|x|^2}$ for $x\in B^n$.

Jesus RS
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Standard Approach

Consider the identification: $$\Phi:\mathbb{B}^n\to\mathbb{R}^n:\Phi(x):=\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-\|x\|_E^2}}$$ Its inverse is given explicitely by: $$\Psi:\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{B}^n:\Psi(y):=\frac{y}{\sqrt{1+\|y\|_E^2}}$$ The argument of the roots never vanish: $$1-\|x\|_E^2\neq0\quad1+\|y\|_E^2\neq0$$ So they're both differentiable.

Alternative Approach

Consider the identification: $$\Phi:\mathbb{B}^n\to\mathbb{R}^n:\Phi(x):=\frac{x}{1-\|x\|_E^2}$$ By the inverse function theorem: $$\mathcal{N}d\Phi(x)\equiv(0)\implies\mathrm{d}\Psi(y)=\mathrm{d}\Phi(\Psi(y))\in\mathcal{L}(\mathbb{R}^n)$$ But this holds globally as the identification is a bijection.

Problematic Approach

Consider the identification: $$\Phi:\mathbb{B}^n\to\mathbb{R}^n:\Phi(x):=\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-\|x\|_\infty^2}}$$ This is most likely not differentiable.

C-star-W-star
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  • I am sorry, I am confused that how can we ensure the norm is smooth? –  Oct 18 '15 at 19:02
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Not every smooth function induces a smooth map: $$\Phi:\mathbb{B}\to\mathbb{R}:\quad\varphi(|x|):=\frac{1}{1-|x|}$$ Just have a careful look at its diagram:

Diffeomorphic Ball

(Note that it is not even differentiable at zero!)

The problem is that the norm is not smooth in general: $$\|\cdot\|:V\to[0,\infty)$$

One can master this almost only by patching a bump on top: $$\varphi(r):=e^{-\frac{1}{r^2}}\cdot\frac{1}{1-r}$$

For a mere diffeomorphism still the whole story highly depends on the chosen norm!

C-star-W-star
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As to the book recommendations I suggest the following:

(i) A course in Differential Geometry (W. Klingenberg)

(ii) Elementary Differential Geometry (A. Pressley)

(iii) Differential-Geometrie und Minimal-Flächen (J. Jost) (in german but it's a wonderful book).

Some more advanced books dealing with differential geometry in the context of differentiable manifolds I'd suggest:

(v) Differential Geometry: Manifolds, Curves and Surfaces (M. Berger, B. Gostiaux)

(vii) A Comprehensive Introduction to Differential Geometry (M. Spivak) (all the volumes)

I hope it helps.

As to your question about the diffeomorphism between the open unit ball and $\mathbb R^n$ the idea is defining a function which will stretch the open ball in all directions.

PtF
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