By definition we have $$\cos(x):= \frac{1}{2}\left(e^{ix}+e^{-ix} \right) $$
Using this definition and applying the binomial expansion to the right hand side I would get $$\cos^n(x)= \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n\sum_{k=0}^n\left(\begin{matrix} n \\ k\end{matrix}\right) e^{ixk} e^{(-ix)(n-k)} = \left(\frac{1}{2} \right)^n \sum_{k=0}^n\left(\begin{matrix} n \\ k\end{matrix}\right) e^{(2k-n)ix}$$ which looks promising, but I can't continue from there, apparently to this Wikipedia entry here there is a much more elegant form. I do of course with the above already obtain the $\cos(2k-n)$ part but there is still the $i\sin(2k-n)$ part present. Namely: $$\cos^n(x) = \frac{1}{2^n}\sum_{k=0}^n \left(\begin{matrix} n \\ k\end{matrix}\right)\left(\cos((2k-n)x)+i \sin((2k-n)x)\right) $$
It feels like an invalid argument to say that $\cos^n(x)$ is real and therefore the $i \sin(2k-n)$ part will vanish.