Let's note a few things. If any of $M_0, M_1, M_2$ are zero, then this is trivial. In particular, $M_0 = 0$ means $f \equiv 0$. $M_1 = 0$ is similarly trivial. If $M_2 = 0$, then $f$ is a linear function, so either $f \equiv c$, in which case the inequality holds, or $f = ax + b$ and $M_0$ is infinite, contradicting that each $M_0, M_1, M_2$ are finite. (If they don't need to be finite, then the inequality isn't true - by taking linear functions).
So we have $M_0, M_1, M_2 > 0$. Taylor's Theorem gives us $\xi \in (x, x + \theta)$ such that
$$ f(x + \theta) = f(x) + f'(x)\theta + \frac{1}{2}f''(\xi)\theta^2.$$
Rearranging,
$$ f'(x) = \frac{1}{\theta} (f(x+\theta) - f(x)) - \frac{\theta}{2} f''(\xi),$$
so that
$$ \lvert f'(x) \rvert \leq \frac{1}{\theta} \left( \lvert f(x + \theta) \rvert + \lvert f(x) \rvert\right) + \frac{\theta}{2} \lvert f''(\xi) \rvert \leq \frac{2}{\theta}M_0 + \frac{\theta}{2} M_2.$$
Take $\theta = \dfrac{2\sqrt M_0}{\sqrt M_2}$ to see that
$$ \lvert f'(x)\rvert \leq 2\sqrt{M_0M_2}.$$
Taking sups and squaring gives
$$ M_1^2 \leq 4M_0M_2,$$
as we wanted to show. $\diamondsuit$
\infty
for $\infty$ – Swapnil Tripathi Nov 13 '14 at 08:46