I would like someone to help me check if I understand this proof and for this reason I would like to give the proof here in my own words. The statement I am proving is this:
Let $A$ be a unital $C^\ast$-algebra and $a \in A$ normal. Then for all $f \in C(\sigma (a))$: $$ f(\sigma (a)) = \sigma (f(a))$$
Ok here is the proof (as I understand it):
Let $\tau \in \Omega (A)$ be a character and $p: \sigma (a) \to \mathbb C$ a polynomial. Then $p(\tau(a)) = \tau (p(a))$ since $\tau$ is linear and multiplicative. Since $\tau$ is continuous and since every $f \in C(\sigma (a))$ is the (uniform) limit of a sequence of polynomials $p_n$ we therefore have
$$ f(\tau(a)) = \lim p_n (\tau (a)) = \lim \tau (p_n (a)) = \tau (\lim p_n (a)) = \tau (f(a))$$
Again from a previous theorem we have that $\sigma (a) = \{\tau (a) \mid \tau \in \Omega (A)\}$. Putting these things together we therefore have:
$$ \sigma (f(a)) = \{\tau (f(a)) \mid \tau \in \Omega (A) \} = \{f(\tau (a)) \mid \tau \in \Omega (A) \} = f(\sigma (a))$$
Is this correct reasoning?