I have the Diophantine equation $$3a^2(4a^2+1)=b(b+1). \tag{$\star$}$$
Each side can evidently be “separated” into two [integer] factors as $$3a^2 \cdot (4a^2+1) = b \cdot (b+1).$$ Now I believe I can claim that, for some integers $p,q,r,s$, the system of equations \begin{align} 3a^2 &= pq, &&& b &= pr, \\ 4a^2+1 &= rs, &&& b+1 &= qs \end{align} must cover all possibilities. Is this correct, or am I missing some case(s)?
EDIT: If this does cover all possibilities, then this proof should be valid to show that ($\star$) has no non-trivial integer solutions.