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In the following link:

Examples of dense sets in the complex plane

we can see an example which says that the following function converges:

$$f(x)=\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{1}{2^n}\frac{1}{x-r_n}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x-r_n}\right) $$

where $r_n$ is any fixed enumeration of the rational, and $f(r_n)=0$.

Why this expression converges?

EQJ
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