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This is an exercise (5-i) from here. It has two parts as follows. For a self-adjoint operator $A$. Show that

  1. $A \geq k I, \ k \in \mathbb R$ if and only if $\lambda \geq k$ for all $\lambda$ belonging to the spectrum of $A$, i.e., $\sigma(A)$.
  2. If $A \geq I$, then $A^n \geq I$ for every natural number $n \geq 1$.

Update: The following is my attempt.

  1. For part one, I remember a result saying that $A \geq 0$ if and only if $\sigma (A) \subset [0, \infty)$. However, I do not know how to prove this result. How to show this, please? If for the moment I assume this result, then by assumption, $A-kI \geq 0$ if and only if $\sigma(A-kI) \subset [0, \infty)$. How to get the desired result from this, please?

  2. For part two, I tried to prove by induction. For $n = 2$, we have $$A^2 - I = (A+I) (A-I), $$ where the first term on the right is sum of positive operators and hence positive. The second by assumption is positive. The two are commutative and self-adjoint. Hence, the product is positive. Then assume that the claim is true for $n=k$, i.e., $A^k - I \geq 0$. Then it is only left to show that it is true for $n=k+1$, i.e., $A^{k+1} - I\geq 0$. I can have $$A^{k+1}-I = A^{k+1} - I^{k+1} = (A-I)(A^k + A^{k-1} + \cdots + A + I) .$$ However, this does not seem to work as it stands. How do I proceed from there, please? Thank you!

user156460
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  • First, try to use the proof of the similar result for matrices: take eigenvector $v$ and consider the scalar product $(Av,v)$. Second, if $P$ is a polynomial, then the eigenvalues of the operator $P(A)$ are equal to $P(\mu)$ where $\mu$ is an eigenvalue of $A$. – TZakrevskiy Nov 05 '14 at 08:51
  • @TZakrevskiy Could you be a bit more specific, please? BTW, I updated my attempt. Any further help, please? – user156460 Nov 05 '14 at 09:12

2 Answers2

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For the first part, if $k-\lambda > 0$, then $$ ((A-\lambda I)x,x) = ((A-kI)x,x)+(k-\lambda)(x,x) \ge (k-\lambda)\|x\|^{2}. $$ Therefore $$ (k-\lambda)\|x\|^{2} \le \|(A-\lambda I)x\|\|x\|,\\ (k-\lambda)\|x\| \le \|(A-\lambda I)x\|. $$ The last inequality can be used to show (a) $\mathcal{N}(A-\lambda I)=\{0\}$ and (b) that the range of $A-\lambda I$ is closed and $A-\lambda I$ has a bounded inverse on that range. Because the range is closed, $$ \mathcal{R}(A-\lambda I)=\mathcal{N}((A-\lambda I)^{\star})^{\perp}=\mathcal{N}(A-\lambda I)^{\perp}=\{0\}^{\perp}=H, $$ where $H$ is the underlying Hilbert space. Therefore $\lambda\in\rho(A)$ for all real $\lambda < k$, which proves $\sigma(A)\subseteq[k,\infty)$.

For the converse, you can use the spectral integral in the reference. If $\sigma(A)\subseteq[k,\infty)$, then $$ (Ax,x) = \int_{k}^{M}\lambda d(E(\lambda)x,x) \ge k\int_{k}^{M} d(E(\lambda)x,x)=k\|x\|^{2}. $$

For the last part you use the spectral mapping theorem and combine it with the first part, or simply write $$ A^{n} = \int_{1}^{M}\lambda^{n}dE(\lambda) \ge \int_{1}^{M}dE(\lambda) = I. $$

Disintegrating By Parts
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  • Sorry for digging up a 5 years old post but I have a question, if you don't mind. As for the converse part, suppose we have a bounded self-adjoint operator $A$ with positive spectrum, is there an alternative approach to show that it induces a positive quadratic form without invoking the spectral theorem? While this approach looks pretty clean to me I just wonder if it could be done in a more elementary way. – BigbearZzz Oct 13 '19 at 18:47
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    @BigbearZzz : Post the statement as a question. A comment here, on a 5-year old post, is not a good way to post a question or an answer to a different question. – Disintegrating By Parts Oct 13 '19 at 23:17
  • OK, I'll do that in a moment. I merely thought that if the answer is short then this may not warrant an entire question just for it. It somehow escaped my thought that the answer can't be so short in this case. – BigbearZzz Oct 13 '19 at 23:31
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For the part two: use spectral mapping theorem from your pdf and the part one.

You know that $A\ge I \iff\forall \lambda\in\sigma(A)\, \lambda\ge 1$ (first part).

Then, by the spectral mapping theorem you know that $\mu\in\sigma(A^n)\iff \exists\lambda\in\sigma(A):\, \mu=\lambda^n$. As all such $\lambda$ are superior to $1$ (hypothesis of the second part and first part), we conclude that $\mu\ge 1$ and therefore $A^n\ge 1$ (again, first part).

As to how to prove the fact that $A\ge 0\Rightarrow\sigma(A)\ge 0$, it depends on some additional hypothesis (dimension of the space, boundedness of $A$). In the finite-dimensioned case take $\lambda\in\sigma(A)$ and the corresponding eigenvector $v$, then $$k\|v\|^2\le (Av,v) = \lambda \|v\|^2,$$hence $\lambda\ge k$. Similarly, if all eigenvalues are superior to $k$, then use the fact that eigenvectors form an orthonormal basis of the whole space.

TZakrevskiy
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