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Let $X$ and $Y$ be two standard Borel spaces and consider the set $M(X,Y)$ of measurable maps $f : X \to Y$. Is $M(X,Y)$ also standard Borel?

First of all, the cardinality of $M(X,Y)$ is $\mathfrak{c} = 2^{\aleph_0}$ for uncountable $X$ and $Y$ (see Cardinality of the borel measurable functions?) - so this doesn't contradict the Borel ismorphism theorem.

In Srivastava, "A course on Borel sets", he considers the space of $B(X,Y) \subseteq M(X,Y)$ of Baire functions, i.e. continuous functions and closed under pointwise limit. Then he states the Lebesgue – Hausdorff theorem that $B(X,Y) = M(X,Y)$ for metrizable $X$. But I haven't found a theorem or note in the book that says that $B(X,Y)$ is standard Borel.

Moreover, he also states that any Borel measurable function can be made continuous by taking a finer topology on $X$ that doesn't change the Borel $\sigma$-algebra of $X$, i.e. $X$ is still standard Borel. But I don't see, how to apply this theorem.

yada
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  • Here is some more information: http://mathoverflow.net/questions/186451/space-of-borel-measurable-maps – yada Nov 04 '15 at 06:38

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