How can Greek manuscripts be intelligible with Hebrew characters placed in it?

Question

In certain old fragments of the Greek Septuigent the name of YHWH alone is written in paleo-Hebrew letters. I’m a novice at Greek, but isn’t it necessary for all proper nouns and names to be written with the proper case ending attached to it? How would that work if a name in hebrew is placed in a sentence? Would the sentence still make sense?

I’m currently learning biblical Greek and an answer to this question would help my understanding of the language.

This seems more relevant to Biblical Hermeneutics stack exchange. — AML, Aug 14 '19 at 18:51

score 1 · Answer 1 · answered Aug 21 '19 at 11:29

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The LXX only ever translates YHWH to:

κύριος
ὁ θεὸς
κύριος ὁ θεὸς

Supposing there is a case of a fragment using paleo-Hebrew to write the name, it would obviously not use Greek case endings. Case would be implied by context.

answered Aug 21 '19 at 11:29

Donovan

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3

Thank you for your answer. Would it be easy to figure out the case ending? – diego b Aug 21 '19 at 12:40

How can Greek manuscripts be intelligible with Hebrew characters placed in it?

1 Answers1