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Assume L is regular language, define 1 = {: ∈ , ∉ }, prove or dispute L1 regular or not ?

Raphael
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user87202
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    What did you try? Where did you get stuck? We're happy to help you understand the concepts but just solving homework-style exercises for you is unlikely to really do that. Try to think about why you can't solve this exercise yourself and ask a question about that. – David Richerby Apr 14 '18 at 08:04

1 Answers1

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It’s regular.

First we can gain a DFA $M$ which accepts the given language $L$. Similarly we have a DFA $\bar M$ which accepts regular language $\bar L$.

Then we can construct a new NFA by adding an $\epsilon$ transition from all the final states in $M$ to $\bar M$’s initial state, which accepts that required language.

Wenzel
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  • ye when i got 2 different languages its the way to solve it, building 2 separeted DFAs... but can u draw it with steps ? what is the right syntax to prove such question ? – user87202 Apr 14 '18 at 15:36
  • I'm not sure if I understand your question. It's basically to connect the two DFA $M$ and $\bar M$ with $\epsilon$ transition. – Wenzel Apr 14 '18 at 19:24