$$L = \{ \langle M \rangle \mid \text{\(M\) is a Turing Machine and \(|L(M)| = 1\)} \}$$
I have to prove that this is not R.E. and not co-R.E.
I know how to approach these kind of problems. For $\check L = \{ \langle M \rangle \mid \text{\(M\) is a Turing Machine and \(|L(M)| \le 1\)} \}$, Here a simple reduction from complement of HP would do the trick. (Make a TM $M'$ which on input $w$ runs $M$ on $x$ and accepts if $M$ accepts $x$. If $\langle M,x \rangle$ belongs to complement of HP then $x$ would not be accepted and hence $M'$ would reject everything thereby satisfying the $\le 1$ property. Also in case $\langle M,x \rangle$ doesn't belong to complement of HP, $M'$ would accept everything and hence would be $\gt 1$. Thus we know that the complement of HP is reducible to $\check L$. Hence $\check L$ is not RE.)
But in the main problem I don't have an inequality and I am stuck with how to approach such problems. I would face the same problem while proving $L'$ (complement of $L$) as not RE for proving $L$ as not co RE.