This is a follow-up of another question here, and I hope it is not too philosophical. As Raphael pointed out in a comment on my previous question, I don't really get the definition of "computable", but according to some papers I read, the definition is also not really clear when it comes to models of computation weaker than turing machines because of the encoding of the input and output.
The typical definition of turing computable is as follows:
Definition 1: A function $f : \mathbb{N}^k \to \mathbb{N}$ is called turing computable iff there is a turing machine $M$ which computes $f$ using a suitable encoding of the natural numbers as strings.
The definitions differ in what exactly is a suitable encoding is, but most refer to binary encoding, unary encoding or decimal encoding as the one fixed and suitable encoding. It is also possible to show that fixing one encoding is required for the definition of turing computability. But what makes, say, binary encoding of natural numbers special so that we can axiomatize it as the one suitable encoding? Probably because it fits the intuitive notion of what computability means coincidentally.
Now what if we look at weaker models of computation than turing machines? For example, let's consider the set $M_c$ of "crippled" turing machines with the alphabet $\{0,1\}$ which may only move to the right, and a definition of crippled turing computable which is consistent with that of turing computability:
Definition 2: A function $f : \mathbb{N}^k \to \mathbb{N}$ is called crippled turing computable or computable in $M_c$ iff there is a crippled turing machine $M$ which computes $f$ using a suitable encoding of the natural numbers as a string.
If we define "suitable encoding" as "binary encoding", then the function $f : \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}, n \mapsto n+1$ is not computable in $M_c$. If we axiomatize "suitable encoding" as "unary encoding", then $f$ is computable in $M_c$. This seems awkward given the fact that everyone may fix one of the infinitely many intuitive encodings at will. It should be clear if a computation model can compute $f$ or not without referring to some specific encoding - at least I have never seen anyone mention what encoding is used when stating "loop programs are weaker than turing machines".
After this introduction I can finally phrase my question: How would one define "suitable encodings" and "computability" for arbitrary models of computation which do not coincide with the intuitive notion of computability? Is this possible within the framework of turing computability?
Edit: I shortened the introduction, it didn't add to the question.