The title pretty much explains the question, but still: Is the language $$L = \{xw^3x^{rev}\mid x, w\in\{0, 1\}^*\}$$ context-free?
I think it isn't and would motivate that suspicion by the following reasoning: if we consider the two languages: $$L' = \{xwx^{rev} \mid\ x,w\in\{0, 1\}^*\} \text{ which is context-free}$$ $$L'' = \{w^3\mid w\in\{0, 1\}^*\} \text{ which can be shown to be non-context-free by the pumping lemma}$$ Now if $L''$ were context-free, then we could obtain the initial language $L$ by "enclosing" $L''$ with $L'$, i.e. $L'$ is sort of a sub-language of $L''$. We can do that by extending the eventual CFG of $L'$ (let's assume its starting non-terminal is $S'$) with the following productions: $$S'' \to 0S''0 \,\mid\, 1S''1 \,\mid\, S'$$ and thus obtaining a grammar for $L$ whose starting symbol is $S''$.
The only problem is that I'm not sure how to formalize that idea and if it's even right and enough to prove that $L$ isn't context-free. Any ideas are welcome! Many thanks in advance!