Prove or disprove or this statement:
The union of an infinite number of regular languages is regular.
Can someone help?
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Yuval Filmus
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codetime1
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1Can you represent a non-regular language as an infinite union of finite languages? – ttnick Apr 25 '21 at 15:18
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2Think about $L_k = {a^kb^k}$ (the language with exactly one word $a^kb^k$). – Nathaniel Apr 25 '21 at 15:34
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@ttnick I think no. Am I right? – codetime1 Apr 25 '21 at 15:57
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Every language is a union of infinitely many regular languages: $$ L = \bigcup_{w \in L} \{w\}. $$
Yuval Filmus
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