I'm sure that in my following question my reasoning is extremely simplistic and flawed, but I think if someone answered this it would help me understand what the P vs NP conundrum is. So here is my question: why is the following not a proof that NP does not equal P?
Scenario: A computer is given an n digit number that it must guess. The digits of this number were randomly chosen. Since the digits are randomly chosen, there is no pattern for a computer to spot and therefore simplify the problem. It must try all solutions, of which there are 9^n.
Does the problem with my reasoning lie with the assumption that the numbers are truly random? Is randomness impossible and there will always be an underlying pattern to how seemingly "random" numbers were chosen